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Brainteaser for TeamLiquid! - Page 18

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endy
Profile Blog Joined May 2009
Switzerland8970 Posts
June 10 2011 15:14 GMT
#341
I don't understand why people keep arguing since this is a very well known paradox.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox
ॐ
Logo
Profile Blog Joined April 2010
United States7542 Posts
Last Edited: 2011-06-10 15:18:15
June 10 2011 15:17 GMT
#342
On June 11 2011 00:14 endy wrote:
I don't understand why people keep arguing since this is a very well known paradox.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox


The wikipedia article even says:

The paradox has frequently stimulated a great deal of controversy. Many people argued strongly for both sides with a great deal of confidence, sometimes showing disdain for those who took the opposing view.


So uh you linked us the answer your own question.
Logo
ControlMonkey
Profile Blog Joined January 2011
Australia3109 Posts
June 10 2011 15:19 GMT
#343
On June 10 2011 23:53 Logo wrote:
Show nested quote +
On June 10 2011 23:41 Dlok wrote:
to those who say 1/5: flip two coins, then tell me one of the results in any way that does not exclude the possibility of a pair. you would give me 1/3 odds on a pair, while the odds clearly havent changed and really are 1/2. now we do this 100 times and I make alot of money.


If we do the test 100s of times the result will in fact be 1/3rd and I would gladly take you up on such odds at something less than 1/2 but greater than 1/3rd as it'd be free money. You could even write a very simple program to test it.

Not understanding probability (which is very counter-intuitive) doesn't change reality.

I'll also just leave this here:
http://www.ted.com/talks/peter_donnelly_shows_how_stats_fool_juries.html


That is an awesome vid you linked.

Thanks!
Dlok
Profile Joined June 2011
Sweden7 Posts
June 10 2011 15:27 GMT
#344
On June 10 2011 23:53 Logo wrote:
Show nested quote +
On June 10 2011 23:41 Dlok wrote:
to those who say 1/5: flip two coins, then tell me one of the results in any way that does not exclude the possibility of a pair. you would give me 1/3 odds on a pair, while the odds clearly havent changed and really are 1/2. now we do this 100 times and I make alot of money.


If we do the test 100s of times the result will in fact be 1/3rd and I would gladly take you up on such odds at something less than 1/2 but greater than 1/3rd as it'd be free money. You could even write a very simple program to test it.

Not understanding probability (which is very counter-intuitive) doesn't change reality.

I'll also just leave this here:
http://www.ted.com/talks/peter_donnelly_shows_how_stats_fool_juries.html

we run it 100 times
endy
Profile Blog Joined May 2009
Switzerland8970 Posts
June 10 2011 15:29 GMT
#345
On June 11 2011 00:17 Logo wrote:
Show nested quote +
On June 11 2011 00:14 endy wrote:
I don't understand why people keep arguing since this is a very well known paradox.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox


The wikipedia article even says:

Show nested quote +
The paradox has frequently stimulated a great deal of controversy. Many people argued strongly for both sides with a great deal of confidence, sometimes showing disdain for those who took the opposing view.


So uh you linked us the answer your own question.


Haha these two sentences from wikipedia are also ambiguous. It's unclear that the many people who argued strongly for both sides knew whether it was a paradox or not. Since that link was already posted at the beginning of the thread, I assume people here knew it's was paradox when arguing, so why simply not admit that the wording has it's importance and that it's pointless to argue forever, since both sides are right depending on how you interpret the wording ?
ॐ
Ivs
Profile Joined January 2008
Australia139 Posts
June 10 2011 15:29 GMT
#346
People are still arguing because OP wanted to present the Boy/Girl paradox, but messed up the wording.

Now there are 3 camps of people

1. People interpreted the OP as the boy/girl paradox, even though OP failed. They say 1/5

2. People who don't really understand whats going on and go with the simplest reasoning. They say 1/3

3. People who are calling out OP's original wording and poor usage of "other", and also get the answer of 1/3.

Chill out guys, no need for name/credential calling. There is no argument here.
Logo
Profile Blog Joined April 2010
United States7542 Posts
Last Edited: 2011-06-10 15:37:14
June 10 2011 15:33 GMT
#347
On June 11 2011 00:27 Dlok wrote:
Show nested quote +
On June 10 2011 23:53 Logo wrote:
On June 10 2011 23:41 Dlok wrote:
to those who say 1/5: flip two coins, then tell me one of the results in any way that does not exclude the possibility of a pair. you would give me 1/3 odds on a pair, while the odds clearly havent changed and really are 1/2. now we do this 100 times and I make alot of money.


If we do the test 100s of times the result will in fact be 1/3rd and I would gladly take you up on such odds at something less than 1/2 but greater than 1/3rd as it'd be free money. You could even write a very simple program to test it.

Not understanding probability (which is very counter-intuitive) doesn't change reality.

I'll also just leave this here:
http://www.ted.com/talks/peter_donnelly_shows_how_stats_fool_juries.html

we run it 100 times


I recommend you stay away from Vegas. Do you even realize what you'd be betting on?

If I win every time we get heads + heads then you'd win with heads + tails (or tails + heads) and every time we get tails + tails we'd call it a draw. You'd be a fool to give someone odds on heads + heads at > 1/3 when you're not winning on two of the 4 possible outcomes.

Haha these two sentences from wikipedia are also ambiguous. It's unclear that the many people who argued strongly for both sides knew whether it was a paradox or not. Since that link was already posted at the beginning of the thread, I assume people here knew it's was paradox when arguing, so why simply not admit that the wording has it's importance and that it's pointless to argue forever, since both sides are right depending on how you interpret the wording ?

The point is the paradox causes intense reactions by those who don't accept the answer as true while those who understand the right answer are... well right. I don't know why you'd think that people wouldn't argue over a paradox that's known to create controversy and argument.
Logo
oxidized
Profile Blog Joined January 2009
United States324 Posts
June 10 2011 15:38 GMT
#348
On June 10 2011 23:41 Dlok wrote:
to those who say 1/5: flip two coins, then tell me one of the results in any way that does not exclude the possibility of a pair. you would give me 1/3 odds on a pair, while the odds clearly havent changed and really are 1/2. now we do this 100 times and I make alot of money.

Wrong. It is the ambiguity of the paradox that causes us to say 1/5. I would not take your bet.

This is the bet I would make.
Flip 2 coins. For each set, throw it out if there is no heads result. Only keep the results which have at least one heads. I give you that 1/3 the sets have a pair of heads, not 1/2.
iStarKraft
Profile Joined March 2011
United Kingdom79 Posts
June 10 2011 15:41 GMT
#349
...since we know that one of the games was zerg, all we need to do is find the probability that the other game was zerg. This gets affected in no way by the game we KNOW was zerg. Therefore, there are three possibilities for the 'other' game played:

He played as zerg.
He played as terran.
He played as protoss.

Zerg will occur 1/3 of the time. Therefore the answer is 1/3. There is absolutely no purpose to writing out the different combinations of games (ZZ PP TT PT TP... etc.), as we only need to find the probability he played one game as zerg, since we already know one of his games was zerg.

I will happily respond to any counter-arguments, but I would most likely be rewording / repeating myself. (^_^)

iSK
"So yeah... you've got to scout, or you'll get raped." - XaoZ
oxidized
Profile Blog Joined January 2009
United States324 Posts
June 10 2011 15:44 GMT
#350
On June 11 2011 00:33 Logo wrote:
Show nested quote +
On June 11 2011 00:27 Dlok wrote:
On June 10 2011 23:53 Logo wrote:
On June 10 2011 23:41 Dlok wrote:
to those who say 1/5: flip two coins, then tell me one of the results in any way that does not exclude the possibility of a pair. you would give me 1/3 odds on a pair, while the odds clearly havent changed and really are 1/2. now we do this 100 times and I make alot of money.


If we do the test 100s of times the result will in fact be 1/3rd and I would gladly take you up on such odds at something less than 1/2 but greater than 1/3rd as it'd be free money. You could even write a very simple program to test it.

Not understanding probability (which is very counter-intuitive) doesn't change reality.

I'll also just leave this here:
http://www.ted.com/talks/peter_donnelly_shows_how_stats_fool_juries.html

we run it 100 times


I recommend you stay away from Vegas. Do you even realize what you'd be betting on?

If I win every time we get heads + heads then you'd win with heads + tails (or tails + heads) and every time we get tails + tails we'd call it a draw. You'd be a fool to give someone odds on heads + heads at > 1/3 when you're not winning on two of the 4 possible outcomes.

Read his bet carefully. He does not throw out tails/tails, which is different from what we expect when we say 1/5. See my above post for details.
jambam
Profile Joined June 2010
United States324 Posts
June 10 2011 15:48 GMT
#351
On June 11 2011 00:29 Ivs wrote:
People are still arguing because OP wanted to present the Boy/Girl paradox, but messed up the wording.

Now there are 3 camps of people

1. People interpreted the OP as the boy/girl paradox, even though OP failed. They say 1/5

2. People who don't really understand whats going on and go with the simplest reasoning. They say 1/3

3. People who are calling out OP's original wording and poor usage of "other", and also get the answer of 1/3.

Chill out guys, no need for name/credential calling. There is no argument here.

I can't thank you enough for posting this. This is how I see it as well.
MisterD
Profile Blog Joined June 2010
Germany1338 Posts
Last Edited: 2011-06-10 16:21:33
June 10 2011 16:16 GMT
#352
On June 10 2011 10:11 theDreamStick wrote:
Solution:
I've played two games. Then the possible combinations are:
ZZ, ZP, ZT, PZ, PP, PT, TZ, TP, TT.

However, I've said I played Zerg. Then that eliminates PP, PT, TP, TT.

Then I am restricted to ZZ, ZP, ZT, PZ, TZ. ZZ is one out of five possible choices, and that is the only which corresponds to "The other game is Zerg."

Then the correct answer is 1/5.


I don't get this: why do you say "i've played two games" and then enumerate the possible pairings for only one game?

And then, regaring only one game, i believe you are wrong. Why is the probability for ZZ 1/5?

In the solution spoiler, it states:
"Then I am restricted to ZZ, ZP, ZT, PZ, TZ.
ZZ is one out of five possible choices"

But i think, this is wrong. Here's the possible stuff. Note that [Z] means "you"
[Z]Z
[Z]P
[Z]T
Z[Z]
P[Z]
T[Z]

if you don't mark yourself, you get ZZ and ZZ, which looks exactly the same and you would thus - when writing it into a set - resolve those to leave only one ZZ. But it's actually two separate events if you count the positions of the players.

So, either [Z]Z and Z[Z] are separate events, or ZP and PZ and ZT and TZ are equal as well.

Adding this up: there are 2/6 ZZ (namely [Z]Z and Z[Z] out of the six mentioned above), or there is 1/3 ZZ (namely ZZ out of ZZ, ZT, ZP). So the Probability for ZZ is actually 1/3, not 1/5?

This in mind - i think the whole discussion about conditional probability is completely pointless. Why on earth would you argue "this is conditional probability, so it's counter intuitive" and bla bla, but then post a solution where the word "conditional" is not mentioned once? Your answer is not based on conditional probability, and in addition i believe it's wrong because you miscounted the possible events.

/edit: clarified wording a little
Gold isn't everything in life... you need wood, too!
chocorush
Profile Joined June 2009
694 Posts
Last Edited: 2011-06-10 16:18:45
June 10 2011 16:16 GMT
#353
On June 11 2011 00:29 Ivs wrote:
People are still arguing because OP wanted to present the Boy/Girl paradox, but messed up the wording.

Now there are 3 camps of people

1. People interpreted the OP as the boy/girl paradox, even though OP failed. They say 1/5

2. People who don't really understand whats going on and go with the simplest reasoning. They say 1/3

3. People who are calling out OP's original wording and poor usage of "other", and also get the answer of 1/3.

Chill out guys, no need for name/credential calling. There is no argument here.


There is no error in the original wording. The statement, "Given that I played zerg at least once, I played zerg both times," and "I played zerg once and I played the other game zerg as well" are equivalent. People are just misconceiving how many choices they actually have, thinking that "the other game" is in reference to a specific game, when it can not be.
foxmeep
Profile Joined July 2009
Australia2337 Posts
June 10 2011 16:30 GMT
#354
On June 11 2011 01:16 MisterD wrote:
Show nested quote +
On June 10 2011 10:11 theDreamStick wrote:
Solution:
I've played two games. Then the possible combinations are:
ZZ, ZP, ZT, PZ, PP, PT, TZ, TP, TT.

However, I've said I played Zerg. Then that eliminates PP, PT, TP, TT.

Then I am restricted to ZZ, ZP, ZT, PZ, TZ. ZZ is one out of five possible choices, and that is the only which corresponds to "The other game is Zerg."

Then the correct answer is 1/5.


I don't get this: why do you say "i've played two games" and then enumerate the possible pairings for only one game?

And then, regaring only one game, i believe you are wrong. Why is the probability for ZZ 1/5?

In the solution spoiler, it states:
"Then I am restricted to ZZ, ZP, ZT, PZ, TZ.
ZZ is one out of five possible choices"

But i think, this is wrong. Here's the possible stuff. Note that [Z] means "you"
[Z]Z
[Z]P
[Z]T
Z[Z]
P[Z]
T[Z]

if you don't mark yourself, you get ZZ and ZZ, which looks exactly the same and you would thus - when writing it into a set - resolve those to leave only one ZZ. But it's actually two separate events if you count the positions of the players.

So, either [Z]Z and Z[Z] are separate events, or ZP and PZ and ZT and TZ are equal as well.

Adding this up: there are 2/6 ZZ (namely [Z]Z and Z[Z] out of the six mentioned above), or there is 1/3 ZZ (namely ZZ out of ZZ, ZT, ZP). So the Probability for ZZ is actually 1/3, not 1/5?

This in mind - i think the whole discussion about conditional probability is completely pointless. Why on earth would you argue "this is conditional probability, so it's counter intuitive" and bla bla, but then post a solution where the word "conditional" is not mentioned once? Your answer is not based on conditional probability, and in addition i believe it's wrong because you miscounted the possible events.

/edit: clarified wording a little


you've misinterpreted.

ZZ means you were Zerg the first game, and Zerg the second game. it isn't a "matchup".
Dlok
Profile Joined June 2011
Sweden7 Posts
June 10 2011 16:31 GMT
#355
On June 11 2011 00:33 Logo wrote:
Show nested quote +
On June 11 2011 00:27 Dlok wrote:
On June 10 2011 23:53 Logo wrote:
On June 10 2011 23:41 Dlok wrote:
to those who say 1/5: flip two coins, then tell me one of the results in any way that does not exclude the possibility of a pair. you would give me 1/3 odds on a pair, while the odds clearly havent changed and really are 1/2. now we do this 100 times and I make alot of money.


If we do the test 100s of times the result will in fact be 1/3rd and I would gladly take you up on such odds at something less than 1/2 but greater than 1/3rd as it'd be free money. You could even write a very simple program to test it.

Not understanding probability (which is very counter-intuitive) doesn't change reality.

I'll also just leave this here:
http://www.ted.com/talks/peter_donnelly_shows_how_stats_fool_juries.html

we run it 100 times


I recommend you stay away from Vegas. Do you even realize what you'd be betting on?

If I win every time we get heads + heads then you'd win with heads + tails (or tails + heads) and every time we get tails + tails we'd call it a draw. You'd be a fool to give someone odds on heads + heads at > 1/3 when you're not winning on two of the 4 possible outcomes.

Show nested quote +
Haha these two sentences from wikipedia are also ambiguous. It's unclear that the many people who argued strongly for both sides knew whether it was a paradox or not. Since that link was already posted at the beginning of the thread, I assume people here knew it's was paradox when arguing, so why simply not admit that the wording has it's importance and that it's pointless to argue forever, since both sides are right depending on how you interpret the wording ?

The point is the paradox causes intense reactions by those who don't accept the answer as true while those who understand the right answer are... well right. I don't know why you'd think that people wouldn't argue over a paradox that's known to create controversy and argument.

Every time you say Heads i say it will be pair of heads, if you say tailes i say pair of tails, now we know 50 out of a hundred are likely to be pairs so i will do fine.

If i say i take only pair of heads i will win 1/4 of said 100 but if im allowed to withdraw when atleast one is not heads i raise my odds to 1/3. This however was not how the problem was stated, and I cant se how it could be interpited that way.
MisterD
Profile Blog Joined June 2010
Germany1338 Posts
June 10 2011 16:39 GMT
#356
On June 11 2011 01:30 foxmeep wrote:
Show nested quote +
On June 11 2011 01:16 MisterD wrote:
On June 10 2011 10:11 theDreamStick wrote:
Solution:
I've played two games. Then the possible combinations are:
ZZ, ZP, ZT, PZ, PP, PT, TZ, TP, TT.

However, I've said I played Zerg. Then that eliminates PP, PT, TP, TT.

Then I am restricted to ZZ, ZP, ZT, PZ, TZ. ZZ is one out of five possible choices, and that is the only which corresponds to "The other game is Zerg."

Then the correct answer is 1/5.


I don't get this: why do you say "i've played two games" and then enumerate the possible pairings for only one game?

And then, regaring only one game, i believe you are wrong. Why is the probability for ZZ 1/5?

In the solution spoiler, it states:
"Then I am restricted to ZZ, ZP, ZT, PZ, TZ.
ZZ is one out of five possible choices"

But i think, this is wrong. Here's the possible stuff. Note that [Z] means "you"
[Z]Z
[Z]P
[Z]T
Z[Z]
P[Z]
T[Z]

if you don't mark yourself, you get ZZ and ZZ, which looks exactly the same and you would thus - when writing it into a set - resolve those to leave only one ZZ. But it's actually two separate events if you count the positions of the players.

So, either [Z]Z and Z[Z] are separate events, or ZP and PZ and ZT and TZ are equal as well.

Adding this up: there are 2/6 ZZ (namely [Z]Z and Z[Z] out of the six mentioned above), or there is 1/3 ZZ (namely ZZ out of ZZ, ZT, ZP). So the Probability for ZZ is actually 1/3, not 1/5?

This in mind - i think the whole discussion about conditional probability is completely pointless. Why on earth would you argue "this is conditional probability, so it's counter intuitive" and bla bla, but then post a solution where the word "conditional" is not mentioned once? Your answer is not based on conditional probability, and in addition i believe it's wrong because you miscounted the possible events.

/edit: clarified wording a little


you've misinterpreted.

ZZ means you were Zerg the first game, and Zerg the second game. it isn't a "matchup".


ahhh okay, that's how it's meant! xD thanks. okay, then this sounds fine. Still, the point about discussing conditional probabilities stands - this answer does not use them, so don't argue they are needed ^^
Gold isn't everything in life... you need wood, too!
teamsolid
Profile Joined October 2007
Canada3668 Posts
Last Edited: 2011-06-10 16:44:07
June 10 2011 16:43 GMT
#357
On June 11 2011 01:16 chocorush wrote:
Show nested quote +
On June 11 2011 00:29 Ivs wrote:
People are still arguing because OP wanted to present the Boy/Girl paradox, but messed up the wording.

Now there are 3 camps of people

1. People interpreted the OP as the boy/girl paradox, even though OP failed. They say 1/5

2. People who don't really understand whats going on and go with the simplest reasoning. They say 1/3

3. People who are calling out OP's original wording and poor usage of "other", and also get the answer of 1/3.

Chill out guys, no need for name/credential calling. There is no argument here.


There is no error in the original wording. The statement, "Given that I played zerg at least once, I played zerg both times," and "I played zerg once and I played the other game zerg as well" are equivalent. People are just misconceiving how many choices they actually have, thinking that "the other game" is in reference to a specific game, when it can not be.

Exactly, the two statements are logically equivalent. The only difference is that the 2nd one is misleading, encouraging the reader to focus more on the "other game" and disregard the given information.

The 3 groups of people should be:

1. People who messed up by reading the question too quickly (even though they understand conditional probability). So, instead they to try to convince themselves and others that the OP was wrong, not them.

2. People who don't really understand whats going on and go with the simplest reasoning. They say 1/3

3. People who got the correct answer 1/5.
EchelonTee
Profile Joined February 2011
United States5260 Posts
June 10 2011 16:54 GMT
#358
On June 11 2011 00:07 amatoer wrote:
I'm not into Math, but I think I figured it out by drawing:

[image loading]

So there are 5 possible answers (playing 2 games rnd of which 1 or more as Z) but only one that leads to ZZ

so it's 1/5


this picture should be in the op
aka "neophyte". learn lots. dont judge. laugh for no reason. be nice. seek happiness. -D[9]
Malinor
Profile Joined November 2008
Germany4736 Posts
Last Edited: 2011-06-10 17:07:10
June 10 2011 16:55 GMT
#359
I'm going with the "I am no native speaker" excuse. I've read the sentence probably 10 times by now and the wording still makes my brain hurt. I would still choose 1/3, although it's obviously a trap.

Sometimes you have to embrace being stupid, that's what I'm doing here.

edit: yeah, as the poster below me said, the poll question still says "Probability that my other game was Zerg?". What kind of english is that?
"Withstand. Suffer. Live as you must now live. There will, one day, be answer to this." ||| "A life, Jimmy, you know what that is? It's the shit that happens while you're waiting for moments that never come."
piegasm
Profile Joined August 2010
United States266 Posts
June 10 2011 17:03 GMT
#360
On June 11 2011 01:16 chocorush wrote:
Show nested quote +
On June 11 2011 00:29 Ivs wrote:
People are still arguing because OP wanted to present the Boy/Girl paradox, but messed up the wording.

Now there are 3 camps of people

1. People interpreted the OP as the boy/girl paradox, even though OP failed. They say 1/5

2. People who don't really understand whats going on and go with the simplest reasoning. They say 1/3

3. People who are calling out OP's original wording and poor usage of "other", and also get the answer of 1/3.

Chill out guys, no need for name/credential calling. There is no argument here.


There is no error in the original wording. The statement, "Given that I played zerg at least once, I played zerg both times," and "I played zerg once and I played the other game zerg as well" are equivalent. People are just misconceiving how many choices they actually have, thinking that "the other game" is in reference to a specific game, when it can not be.


The unedited OP didn't say "other game as well". It just said "other game". The poll itself STILL says "other game". People are going to continue to say 1/3 because, regardless of the explanation at the beginning, the poll itself still asking the probability of drawing Zerg in a single game.
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