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Read the rules in the OP before posting, please.

In order to ensure that this thread continues to meet TL standards and follows the proper guidelines, we will be enforcing the rules in the OP more strictly. Be sure to give them a re-read to refresh your memory! The vast majority of you are contributing in a healthy way, keep it up!

NOTE: When providing a source, explain why you feel it is relevant and what purpose it adds to the discussion if it's not obvious.
Also take note that unsubstantiated tweets/posts meant only to rekindle old arguments can result in a mod action.
JonnyBNoHo
Profile Joined July 2011
United States6277 Posts
Last Edited: 2014-03-21 19:43:19
March 21 2014 19:39 GMT
#18961
On March 22 2014 04:27 GreenHorizons wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 01:03 aksfjh wrote:
On March 21 2014 23:25 Nyxisto wrote:
On March 21 2014 18:07 DeepElemBlues wrote:
Of course it doesn't, capital accumulation invested into production eventually and inevitably does. From the only examples we have in history it seems to take about two generations.

But if no one has the money to buy the produced stuff companies are not going to invest into production and instead will chose to make more money from the financial markets instead.(which often again put the money into other financial products and so on and so forth)

There's really not that much to theorize. If too much capital is in the hand of only a few people they'll do stupid stuff with it because demand of real goods is too low. If companies don't have enough money they can't invest and make new cool stuff.
It's basically just an empirical question to find the distribution that guarantees that both is happening. But the financial crisis and the fact that the financial markets today are tens of times bigger than the real economy strongly indicate that we're well past this point.

That really isn't what is happening though. There's plenty of investment in production right now. However, almost all of that investment is about increasing efficiency instead of increasing output. This is why we're seeing soaring profit margins of businesses and not soaring employment.

Now, that's not to say the financial sector doesn't seem extremely large in some places, but I fail to see how that is, in and of itself, a problem for everybody. If risk isn't properly mitigated, it poses a problem for economies that rely too heavily on it, but that's true of any sector.


Well the interconnections and the shear size of the financial sector are two aspects that make it a bigger deal than other sectors.

Few if any other sectors have the ability to devastate every other economic industry to such a degree.

Part of it is that people were screaming from the rafters that the deregulation of the financial markets and the ensuing intentionally piss poor risk management and fraud would lead to financial disaster.

Meanwhile schmucks like Greenspan and his "conservative" ilk were claiming that the free market being unleashed would be so great. And that the financial institutions would not do precisely what they did.

Randians claim the free market clears up deceitful and corrupt industries, but as soon as the financial market did what people had been saying would happen, did conservatives rally behind stopping the big bad government from bailing out the financial industry?? Of course not. They all said some variation "it violates my principles but it has to be done" That's what the fuck people were talking about.

And even if people had stayed true to their "principles" the entire global economy would of been hosed. The financial industry has such a stranglehold on the global economy they can be caught red handed committing egregious legal violations but all they have to do is pay a fine and deny they did anything wrong. They just signed off on giving away billions of dollars because they wanted to be good people...

And part of it was that regulators were cheering that they had a great handle on risk.

Edit: remember liberals and their ilk claiming how government interventions and new regulations were going to keep us safe? you can laugh at ideologues from both sides of the aisle here.
aksfjh
Profile Joined November 2010
United States4853 Posts
March 21 2014 19:59 GMT
#18962
On March 22 2014 04:27 GreenHorizons wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 01:03 aksfjh wrote:
On March 21 2014 23:25 Nyxisto wrote:
On March 21 2014 18:07 DeepElemBlues wrote:
Of course it doesn't, capital accumulation invested into production eventually and inevitably does. From the only examples we have in history it seems to take about two generations.

But if no one has the money to buy the produced stuff companies are not going to invest into production and instead will chose to make more money from the financial markets instead.(which often again put the money into other financial products and so on and so forth)

There's really not that much to theorize. If too much capital is in the hand of only a few people they'll do stupid stuff with it because demand of real goods is too low. If companies don't have enough money they can't invest and make new cool stuff.
It's basically just an empirical question to find the distribution that guarantees that both is happening. But the financial crisis and the fact that the financial markets today are tens of times bigger than the real economy strongly indicate that we're well past this point.

That really isn't what is happening though. There's plenty of investment in production right now. However, almost all of that investment is about increasing efficiency instead of increasing output. This is why we're seeing soaring profit margins of businesses and not soaring employment.

Now, that's not to say the financial sector doesn't seem extremely large in some places, but I fail to see how that is, in and of itself, a problem for everybody. If risk isn't properly mitigated, it poses a problem for economies that rely too heavily on it, but that's true of any sector.


Well the interconnections and the shear size of the financial sector are two aspects that make it a bigger deal than other sectors.

Few if any other sectors have the ability to devastate every other economic industry to such a degree
.

Part of it is that people were screaming from the rafters that the deregulation of the financial markets and the ensuing intentionally piss poor risk management and fraud would lead to financial disaster.

Meanwhile schmucks like Greenspan and his "conservative" ilk were claiming that the free market being unleashed would be so great. And that the financial institutions would not do precisely what they did.

Randians claim the free market clears up deceitful and corrupt industries, but as soon as the financial market did what people had been saying would happen, did conservatives rally behind stopping the big bad government from bailing out the financial industry?? Of course not. They all said some variation "it violates my principles but it has to be done" That's what the fuck people were talking about.

And even if people had stayed true to their "principles" the entire global economy would of been hosed. The financial industry has such a stranglehold on the global economy they can be caught red handed committing egregious legal violations but all they have to do is pay a fine and deny they did anything wrong. They just signed off on giving away billions of dollars because they wanted to be good people...

Well, housing for one. Oil/energy is another. Improperly mitigating the spread and treatment of disease ("plagues" and "epidemics") fall under healthcare, and famine/drought effects are another. You might say computers almost caused real problems with Y2K, but it was ultimately avoided. Information security is just waiting to cause some major damage as well...

They're all market failures to some extent, usually by evaluating risk poorly.
Introvert
Profile Joined April 2011
United States4851 Posts
March 21 2014 20:10 GMT
#18963
On March 22 2014 04:27 GreenHorizons wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 01:03 aksfjh wrote:
On March 21 2014 23:25 Nyxisto wrote:
On March 21 2014 18:07 DeepElemBlues wrote:
Of course it doesn't, capital accumulation invested into production eventually and inevitably does. From the only examples we have in history it seems to take about two generations.

But if no one has the money to buy the produced stuff companies are not going to invest into production and instead will chose to make more money from the financial markets instead.(which often again put the money into other financial products and so on and so forth)

There's really not that much to theorize. If too much capital is in the hand of only a few people they'll do stupid stuff with it because demand of real goods is too low. If companies don't have enough money they can't invest and make new cool stuff.
It's basically just an empirical question to find the distribution that guarantees that both is happening. But the financial crisis and the fact that the financial markets today are tens of times bigger than the real economy strongly indicate that we're well past this point.

That really isn't what is happening though. There's plenty of investment in production right now. However, almost all of that investment is about increasing efficiency instead of increasing output. This is why we're seeing soaring profit margins of businesses and not soaring employment.

Now, that's not to say the financial sector doesn't seem extremely large in some places, but I fail to see how that is, in and of itself, a problem for everybody. If risk isn't properly mitigated, it poses a problem for economies that rely too heavily on it, but that's true of any sector.




Meanwhile schmucks like Greenspan and his "conservative" ilk were claiming that the free market being unleashed would be so great. And that the financial institutions would not do precisely what they did.

Randians claim the free market clears up deceitful and corrupt industries, but as soon as the financial market did what people had been saying would happen, did conservatives rally behind stopping the big bad government from bailing out the financial industry?? Of course not. They all said some variation "it violates my principles but it has to be done" That's what the fuck people were talking about.



Just a quick note of clarification: The GWB types were in favor of the bailouts, but many conservatives were not. In fact, the bailouts were what helped start the Tea Party movement! I would say that Republicans were in favor of it more than conservatives. That's still true today.

I'm not commenting on your economic analysis at all, btw.
"But, as the conservative understands it, modification of the rules should always reflect, and never impose, a change in the activities and beliefs of those who are subject to them, and should never on any occasion be so great as to destroy the ensemble."
IgnE
Profile Joined November 2010
United States7681 Posts
March 21 2014 20:29 GMT
#18964
On March 22 2014 02:03 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 01:34 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:02 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 18:29 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 07:46 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 06:39 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:41 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:18 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 04:36 WhiteDog wrote:
[quote]
You know I'm not speculating entirely. It's just that it is a complex matter. As I said, there are no law in this matter : so we can only use historical evolution and "speculate" from it.
Now, we are arguing that we are in a crisis, because the situation is comparable to the situation prior to the first world war (in terms of capital to income ratio for exemple) : and yes, it was a deep crisis of the economical system back there (1929 remember ? and the new deal fixed it, through a high marginal taxation, in the US, while the two world war fixed it in Europe, through the destruction of capital).

+ Show Spoiler +
[image loading]
[image loading]
[image loading]
[image loading]

There have been more than two crisis (great depression and today). Why are you linking these two? Moreover, why are you supposing that capital accumulation is the cause? Why not look to a bank run / credit crisis as the cause?

Well the bubble in 2000 have ressemblance but not at the same scale. I am not the one that made clear that there are big ressemblance between 2007 and 1929 - there are a tremendous number of paper and work on the subject. I'm not saying that the crisis was created by the accumulation per say (we already had this discussion), I am merely showing a direct correlation between the two (through the various graph).
The analysis of the impact of inequalities and capital accumulation on crisis is very complex and quite new, and I already gave my point of view on various occasion on that previously, so I will not enter in that area (the IMF, the OECD, and various economists such as Krugman are discussing this since some times now).

So you want to link accumulation with crisis? Then why add in inequality? The Marxian view doesn't stand up well in the US. We save little and import a vast amount of capital from overseas. Or just look at the graphs you posted - more inequality in the US yet Europe has more accumulation.

And what about how the latest crisis played out. Too much capital wasn't the issue, it was how the capital was structured and used that was the main issue. Look at your graphs again - there was a lot of capital accumulated in the UK / France for quite a while before the depression and the accumulation fluctuations in the US aren't very big (relatively).

How the capital was used and structured is linked to the accumulation. If inequalities and/or accumulation is too important (the two are obviously linked) then demand is lacking, and it is better to use capital income in sustaining demand - through credit (for the state or for individuals, just like during the "roaring twenties" or "la belle époque") - than to use it directly for production.

It is something I've stated countless time and you force me to restate it over and over. Everytime you refuse to acknowledge the deep macroeconomic background that participated in the 2007 crisis, and force us to talk everytime about financial innovations, risk management and whatever.

The US had a huge trade deficit nearing 6% of GDP at its worst. We weren't able to produce enough to meet our own demand by a long shot. Capital had no where to go? How about satisfying existing demand? Capital was ~450% of GDP in US but ~650% of GDP in France but we were over accumulating?

We were absorbing a huge amount of capital from other countries:

[image loading]source

we were over accumulating yet excess capital from all over the world flooded to the US?

And what happened during the crisis? Capital flowed out of the US!

You don't seems to understand. The huge trade deficit was only possible because of credits. The US basically sustained the world economy through debt - an artificial demand. I never said the US were specifically over accumulating capital, I said there is a global tendency of accumulation that is not sustainable in the long run : this touch both the US (at 500% of income) and France.
The US trade deficit is merely a result of the overall over accumulation of capital in the entire world : the US is not an island that we could just discuss after putting aside all other countries. I'm going to stop responding to your endless questions, I don't think I will be able to correct your incapacity to understand the big picture.

Like I already told IgnE, focusing on global over accumulation makes even less sense. Billions have far less capital stock to work with than the developed world and they're poorer for it. Capital flowing to the US to fund consumption is more of a mis allocation of capital rather than an over accumulation of capital. Developing countries need more factories and more power plants, which requires investment.

If you want to run with the global savings glut story you can, but it's different from the Marxist over accumulation story. That situation was driven by a lot of low income savers having their savings channeled into their economy's export sector and holding of foreign reserves via government policy. It wasn't a situation of capitalists saving too much and desperately trying to find a home for their capital. Their capital could have been used to finance domestic activity, but they chose to finance exports instead.

When you say it is a misallocation of capital, you are right, but you are also going against everything you said previously (the hypothesis of the efficiency of financial market, that I critized and that you tried to defend some month ago).

What was the context there? I've never argued that you get perfect results ex post. The best you can get is a good decision ex ante. You and I could be using different definitions of efficient.

Show nested quote +
Of course there is a misallocation (as in financial market are not working efficiently), but even if the capital was rightly allocated, it would not lead to an economic growth that is comparable to the rate of return on capital, for obvious reasons. When we say overaccumulation, nobody is saying there is too much capital - something that you don't seems to understand - but we imply that capital in relation to income has become too important and that there are no forces that would change this trend.

To evaluate that, you don't need to evaluate the capital in a society by itself, you need to evaluate the capital, in relation to the income, and thus the rate of return in relation to both GDP growth AND potential growth. In a world where GDP growth will never be high enough for the current rate of return on capital to be sustainable, you are in a situation of overaccumulation. I'm not talking about the global saving glut, by the way, because I'm not saying the demand is low for some theorical reasons and that we can fix the whole problem through policy that sustain demand, I'm saying the dynamics of capitalism push us towards a capital overaccumulation where demand is being restricted for profit - what needs to be fixed is capital and not demand.

You think Marx don't talk about demand ? You think Keynes and Marx are that far off ? Keynes is a just light Marx.

No I understand the argument. There's too much capital relative to demand. But I don't think that's correct and supported by the data.

"But capital to income has been increasing" ... yet trends change all the time. Just look at the US - falling savings rate and the return on capital may be falling for the long term as well. There's a lot of intelligent and honest discussions in the world of public pensions over whether or not their assumptions on portfolio rates of return need to be adjusted downward for the long run. A downward savings rate and rate of return would put a huge break on any 'over accumulation' here.

Similarly a lot of countries, like China, realized that export lead growth can't be a permanent thing and have been trying to readjust to domestic growth.

It's like I said before, you can't just assume a trend will continue and then complain that your extrapolation won't work. If it won't work, why would it continue?


You seem to be missing the part where a downward rate of return is a prime driver of overaccumulation. Capital is less likely to be reinvested and so sits unused by the capital owners.

As for your comments on robots, you are hopelessly deluded if you think a capitalist economy like the one we have now will ever result in a country where the bottom 80% own enough robots to take care of their needs, let alone the bottom 80% of the world.

I
The unrealistic sound of these propositions is indicative, not of their utopian character, but of the strength of the forces which prevent their realization.
WhiteDog
Profile Blog Joined November 2010
France8650 Posts
Last Edited: 2014-03-21 20:38:44
March 21 2014 20:32 GMT
#18965
On March 22 2014 02:03 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 01:34 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:02 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 18:29 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 07:46 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 06:39 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:41 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:18 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 04:36 WhiteDog wrote:
[quote]
You know I'm not speculating entirely. It's just that it is a complex matter. As I said, there are no law in this matter : so we can only use historical evolution and "speculate" from it.
Now, we are arguing that we are in a crisis, because the situation is comparable to the situation prior to the first world war (in terms of capital to income ratio for exemple) : and yes, it was a deep crisis of the economical system back there (1929 remember ? and the new deal fixed it, through a high marginal taxation, in the US, while the two world war fixed it in Europe, through the destruction of capital).

+ Show Spoiler +
[image loading]
[image loading]
[image loading]
[image loading]

There have been more than two crisis (great depression and today). Why are you linking these two? Moreover, why are you supposing that capital accumulation is the cause? Why not look to a bank run / credit crisis as the cause?

Well the bubble in 2000 have ressemblance but not at the same scale. I am not the one that made clear that there are big ressemblance between 2007 and 1929 - there are a tremendous number of paper and work on the subject. I'm not saying that the crisis was created by the accumulation per say (we already had this discussion), I am merely showing a direct correlation between the two (through the various graph).
The analysis of the impact of inequalities and capital accumulation on crisis is very complex and quite new, and I already gave my point of view on various occasion on that previously, so I will not enter in that area (the IMF, the OECD, and various economists such as Krugman are discussing this since some times now).

So you want to link accumulation with crisis? Then why add in inequality? The Marxian view doesn't stand up well in the US. We save little and import a vast amount of capital from overseas. Or just look at the graphs you posted - more inequality in the US yet Europe has more accumulation.

And what about how the latest crisis played out. Too much capital wasn't the issue, it was how the capital was structured and used that was the main issue. Look at your graphs again - there was a lot of capital accumulated in the UK / France for quite a while before the depression and the accumulation fluctuations in the US aren't very big (relatively).

How the capital was used and structured is linked to the accumulation. If inequalities and/or accumulation is too important (the two are obviously linked) then demand is lacking, and it is better to use capital income in sustaining demand - through credit (for the state or for individuals, just like during the "roaring twenties" or "la belle époque") - than to use it directly for production.

It is something I've stated countless time and you force me to restate it over and over. Everytime you refuse to acknowledge the deep macroeconomic background that participated in the 2007 crisis, and force us to talk everytime about financial innovations, risk management and whatever.

The US had a huge trade deficit nearing 6% of GDP at its worst. We weren't able to produce enough to meet our own demand by a long shot. Capital had no where to go? How about satisfying existing demand? Capital was ~450% of GDP in US but ~650% of GDP in France but we were over accumulating?

We were absorbing a huge amount of capital from other countries:

[image loading]source

we were over accumulating yet excess capital from all over the world flooded to the US?

And what happened during the crisis? Capital flowed out of the US!

You don't seems to understand. The huge trade deficit was only possible because of credits. The US basically sustained the world economy through debt - an artificial demand. I never said the US were specifically over accumulating capital, I said there is a global tendency of accumulation that is not sustainable in the long run : this touch both the US (at 500% of income) and France.
The US trade deficit is merely a result of the overall over accumulation of capital in the entire world : the US is not an island that we could just discuss after putting aside all other countries. I'm going to stop responding to your endless questions, I don't think I will be able to correct your incapacity to understand the big picture.

Like I already told IgnE, focusing on global over accumulation makes even less sense. Billions have far less capital stock to work with than the developed world and they're poorer for it. Capital flowing to the US to fund consumption is more of a mis allocation of capital rather than an over accumulation of capital. Developing countries need more factories and more power plants, which requires investment.

If you want to run with the global savings glut story you can, but it's different from the Marxist over accumulation story. That situation was driven by a lot of low income savers having their savings channeled into their economy's export sector and holding of foreign reserves via government policy. It wasn't a situation of capitalists saving too much and desperately trying to find a home for their capital. Their capital could have been used to finance domestic activity, but they chose to finance exports instead.

When you say it is a misallocation of capital, you are right, but you are also going against everything you said previously (the hypothesis of the efficiency of financial market, that I critized and that you tried to defend some month ago).

What was the context there? I've never argued that you get perfect results ex post. The best you can get is a good decision ex ante. You and I could be using different definitions of efficient.

Show nested quote +
Of course there is a misallocation (as in financial market are not working efficiently), but even if the capital was rightly allocated, it would not lead to an economic growth that is comparable to the rate of return on capital, for obvious reasons. When we say overaccumulation, nobody is saying there is too much capital - something that you don't seems to understand - but we imply that capital in relation to income has become too important and that there are no forces that would change this trend.

To evaluate that, you don't need to evaluate the capital in a society by itself, you need to evaluate the capital, in relation to the income, and thus the rate of return in relation to both GDP growth AND potential growth. In a world where GDP growth will never be high enough for the current rate of return on capital to be sustainable, you are in a situation of overaccumulation. I'm not talking about the global saving glut, by the way, because I'm not saying the demand is low for some theorical reasons and that we can fix the whole problem through policy that sustain demand, I'm saying the dynamics of capitalism push us towards a capital overaccumulation where demand is being restricted for profit - what needs to be fixed is capital and not demand.

You think Marx don't talk about demand ? You think Keynes and Marx are that far off ? Keynes is a just light Marx.

No I understand the argument. There's too much capital relative to demand. But I don't think that's correct and supported by the data.

"But capital to income has been increasing" ... yet trends change all the time. Just look at the US - falling savings rate and the return on capital may be falling for the long term as well. There's a lot of intelligent and honest discussions in the world of public pensions over whether or not their assumptions on portfolio rates of return need to be adjusted downward for the long run. A downward savings rate and rate of return would put a huge break on any 'over accumulation' here.

Similarly a lot of countries, like China, realized that export lead growth can't be a permanent thing and have been trying to readjust to domestic growth.

It's like I said before, you can't just assume a trend will continue and then complain that your extrapolation won't work. If it won't work, why would it continue?

Trends change all the time ? Do you see the graph I linked ? At which point do you see a change in this trend ?
The only moment where capital is getting lower is when it is effectively either destroyed by the two world wars, or greatly reduced by taxations or crisis. It is the whole case behind the arguments : what does push our economy toward accumulation or not ? And the response is that there are no economic forces, aside from growth, that can prevent an endless accumulation of capital.

It is absolutly false, and rather short sighted, to make the comparaison between the rate of accumulation - something that with the current data has been shown to be quite constant in its evolution other the world - and any other kind of "predictions" where the historic data shows not only change in trends, but also an erratic evolution.
"every time WhiteDog overuses the word "seriously" in a comment I can make an observation on his fragile emotional state." MoltkeWarding
CannonsNCarriers
Profile Joined April 2010
United States638 Posts
March 21 2014 20:34 GMT
#18966
On March 22 2014 04:07 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 03:58 Sub40APM wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:56 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:40 Sub40APM wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:37 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:25 Sub40APM wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:22 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 02:56 CannonsNCarriers wrote:
On March 22 2014 02:44 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 02:31 IgnE wrote:
[quote]

And this future economy you speak of where robots do all the work is a capitalist one? Do the robot's owners just give away the living essentials to the impoverished post-working-class?

If robots are doing all the work there is no working class. You'd have to get rid of your capitalist / worker classification, which is artificial to begin with.


But the capitalist / worker labor market system is how gains from capital filter down to to workers. If the labor market dies due to robots, how will those who don't own robots eat? The labor market feeds them now, but that might go away. Society will need some alternative to the labor market is these robots do all the work.

PS: The obvious alternative is a tax and spend welfare state.

Or broader ownership.

I'd think most likely a mix of the two, with a relatively small labor market still existing.

why would I share my robot army with you if I have one?

why would I need you to share your robot army with me if I have one?

isnt that what you meant by 'broader ownership'? Some kind of stock ownership that allows the common man the benefits of a robot overlord?
It could be that. Depends on the robots...

Anyways, if we're talking stock you don't get the army unless you issue shares. That's part of the funding to get the robots. So it's similar to today - if you want to raise capital you need to reach out to a lot of places, many of which have strong ties to the common rabble (banks, insurance co.'s, pension funds, public trusts, endowments, etc.).

Not really. There are plenty of large wholly private companies.

Wholly private doesn't mean singular owner. Examples?

Edit: regardless, does it even matter? some guy owns a lot of robots... so what? unless you're supposing that one guy owns all the robots...


One guy will own all the robots when the labor market dies. For centuries the labor market has been capitalism's answer to redistribution policy. The problem is that the labor market is decaying and won't get any better in the future. % Wage gains year of year are lower than ever. You can talk about broader ownership of the means of production, but look at stock ownership. The working classes own less than ever before of the stock market. I see nothing right now that indicates that the wage workers of the future will own more means of production than they do now.

This is why I think the resolution to this problem has to come from taxes. If there is no market way to move wealth downwards (e.g., the labor market), then you have to have the state force it.

PS: maybe there are alternatives. Higher minimum wages and stronger union policy (which is a subsidy to labor bargaining power) could provide more market methods of stalling the inevitable wage decline.
Dun tuch my cheezbrgr
JonnyBNoHo
Profile Joined July 2011
United States6277 Posts
March 21 2014 20:36 GMT
#18967
On March 22 2014 05:29 IgnE wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 02:03 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:34 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:02 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 18:29 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 07:46 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 06:39 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:41 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:18 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
[quote]
There have been more than two crisis (great depression and today). Why are you linking these two? Moreover, why are you supposing that capital accumulation is the cause? Why not look to a bank run / credit crisis as the cause?

Well the bubble in 2000 have ressemblance but not at the same scale. I am not the one that made clear that there are big ressemblance between 2007 and 1929 - there are a tremendous number of paper and work on the subject. I'm not saying that the crisis was created by the accumulation per say (we already had this discussion), I am merely showing a direct correlation between the two (through the various graph).
The analysis of the impact of inequalities and capital accumulation on crisis is very complex and quite new, and I already gave my point of view on various occasion on that previously, so I will not enter in that area (the IMF, the OECD, and various economists such as Krugman are discussing this since some times now).

So you want to link accumulation with crisis? Then why add in inequality? The Marxian view doesn't stand up well in the US. We save little and import a vast amount of capital from overseas. Or just look at the graphs you posted - more inequality in the US yet Europe has more accumulation.

And what about how the latest crisis played out. Too much capital wasn't the issue, it was how the capital was structured and used that was the main issue. Look at your graphs again - there was a lot of capital accumulated in the UK / France for quite a while before the depression and the accumulation fluctuations in the US aren't very big (relatively).

How the capital was used and structured is linked to the accumulation. If inequalities and/or accumulation is too important (the two are obviously linked) then demand is lacking, and it is better to use capital income in sustaining demand - through credit (for the state or for individuals, just like during the "roaring twenties" or "la belle époque") - than to use it directly for production.

It is something I've stated countless time and you force me to restate it over and over. Everytime you refuse to acknowledge the deep macroeconomic background that participated in the 2007 crisis, and force us to talk everytime about financial innovations, risk management and whatever.

The US had a huge trade deficit nearing 6% of GDP at its worst. We weren't able to produce enough to meet our own demand by a long shot. Capital had no where to go? How about satisfying existing demand? Capital was ~450% of GDP in US but ~650% of GDP in France but we were over accumulating?

We were absorbing a huge amount of capital from other countries:

[image loading]source

we were over accumulating yet excess capital from all over the world flooded to the US?

And what happened during the crisis? Capital flowed out of the US!

You don't seems to understand. The huge trade deficit was only possible because of credits. The US basically sustained the world economy through debt - an artificial demand. I never said the US were specifically over accumulating capital, I said there is a global tendency of accumulation that is not sustainable in the long run : this touch both the US (at 500% of income) and France.
The US trade deficit is merely a result of the overall over accumulation of capital in the entire world : the US is not an island that we could just discuss after putting aside all other countries. I'm going to stop responding to your endless questions, I don't think I will be able to correct your incapacity to understand the big picture.

Like I already told IgnE, focusing on global over accumulation makes even less sense. Billions have far less capital stock to work with than the developed world and they're poorer for it. Capital flowing to the US to fund consumption is more of a mis allocation of capital rather than an over accumulation of capital. Developing countries need more factories and more power plants, which requires investment.

If you want to run with the global savings glut story you can, but it's different from the Marxist over accumulation story. That situation was driven by a lot of low income savers having their savings channeled into their economy's export sector and holding of foreign reserves via government policy. It wasn't a situation of capitalists saving too much and desperately trying to find a home for their capital. Their capital could have been used to finance domestic activity, but they chose to finance exports instead.

When you say it is a misallocation of capital, you are right, but you are also going against everything you said previously (the hypothesis of the efficiency of financial market, that I critized and that you tried to defend some month ago).

What was the context there? I've never argued that you get perfect results ex post. The best you can get is a good decision ex ante. You and I could be using different definitions of efficient.

Of course there is a misallocation (as in financial market are not working efficiently), but even if the capital was rightly allocated, it would not lead to an economic growth that is comparable to the rate of return on capital, for obvious reasons. When we say overaccumulation, nobody is saying there is too much capital - something that you don't seems to understand - but we imply that capital in relation to income has become too important and that there are no forces that would change this trend.

To evaluate that, you don't need to evaluate the capital in a society by itself, you need to evaluate the capital, in relation to the income, and thus the rate of return in relation to both GDP growth AND potential growth. In a world where GDP growth will never be high enough for the current rate of return on capital to be sustainable, you are in a situation of overaccumulation. I'm not talking about the global saving glut, by the way, because I'm not saying the demand is low for some theorical reasons and that we can fix the whole problem through policy that sustain demand, I'm saying the dynamics of capitalism push us towards a capital overaccumulation where demand is being restricted for profit - what needs to be fixed is capital and not demand.

You think Marx don't talk about demand ? You think Keynes and Marx are that far off ? Keynes is a just light Marx.

No I understand the argument. There's too much capital relative to demand. But I don't think that's correct and supported by the data.

"But capital to income has been increasing" ... yet trends change all the time. Just look at the US - falling savings rate and the return on capital may be falling for the long term as well. There's a lot of intelligent and honest discussions in the world of public pensions over whether or not their assumptions on portfolio rates of return need to be adjusted downward for the long run. A downward savings rate and rate of return would put a huge break on any 'over accumulation' here.

Similarly a lot of countries, like China, realized that export lead growth can't be a permanent thing and have been trying to readjust to domestic growth.

It's like I said before, you can't just assume a trend will continue and then complain that your extrapolation won't work. If it won't work, why would it continue?


You seem to be missing the part where a downward rate of return is a prime driver of overaccumulation. Capital is less likely to be reinvested and so sits unused by the capital owners.

Argue that with WiteDog. He's been citing r > g as the driver and the book he's been citing says that rate of return has been rather constant. I don't see how a lower rate of return is going to mean greater capital accumulation anyhow.
WhiteDog
Profile Blog Joined November 2010
France8650 Posts
March 21 2014 20:42 GMT
#18968
On March 22 2014 05:36 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 05:29 IgnE wrote:
On March 22 2014 02:03 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:34 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:02 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 18:29 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 07:46 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 06:39 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:41 WhiteDog wrote:
[quote]
Well the bubble in 2000 have ressemblance but not at the same scale. I am not the one that made clear that there are big ressemblance between 2007 and 1929 - there are a tremendous number of paper and work on the subject. I'm not saying that the crisis was created by the accumulation per say (we already had this discussion), I am merely showing a direct correlation between the two (through the various graph).
The analysis of the impact of inequalities and capital accumulation on crisis is very complex and quite new, and I already gave my point of view on various occasion on that previously, so I will not enter in that area (the IMF, the OECD, and various economists such as Krugman are discussing this since some times now).

So you want to link accumulation with crisis? Then why add in inequality? The Marxian view doesn't stand up well in the US. We save little and import a vast amount of capital from overseas. Or just look at the graphs you posted - more inequality in the US yet Europe has more accumulation.

And what about how the latest crisis played out. Too much capital wasn't the issue, it was how the capital was structured and used that was the main issue. Look at your graphs again - there was a lot of capital accumulated in the UK / France for quite a while before the depression and the accumulation fluctuations in the US aren't very big (relatively).

How the capital was used and structured is linked to the accumulation. If inequalities and/or accumulation is too important (the two are obviously linked) then demand is lacking, and it is better to use capital income in sustaining demand - through credit (for the state or for individuals, just like during the "roaring twenties" or "la belle époque") - than to use it directly for production.

It is something I've stated countless time and you force me to restate it over and over. Everytime you refuse to acknowledge the deep macroeconomic background that participated in the 2007 crisis, and force us to talk everytime about financial innovations, risk management and whatever.

The US had a huge trade deficit nearing 6% of GDP at its worst. We weren't able to produce enough to meet our own demand by a long shot. Capital had no where to go? How about satisfying existing demand? Capital was ~450% of GDP in US but ~650% of GDP in France but we were over accumulating?

We were absorbing a huge amount of capital from other countries:

[image loading]source

we were over accumulating yet excess capital from all over the world flooded to the US?

And what happened during the crisis? Capital flowed out of the US!

You don't seems to understand. The huge trade deficit was only possible because of credits. The US basically sustained the world economy through debt - an artificial demand. I never said the US were specifically over accumulating capital, I said there is a global tendency of accumulation that is not sustainable in the long run : this touch both the US (at 500% of income) and France.
The US trade deficit is merely a result of the overall over accumulation of capital in the entire world : the US is not an island that we could just discuss after putting aside all other countries. I'm going to stop responding to your endless questions, I don't think I will be able to correct your incapacity to understand the big picture.

Like I already told IgnE, focusing on global over accumulation makes even less sense. Billions have far less capital stock to work with than the developed world and they're poorer for it. Capital flowing to the US to fund consumption is more of a mis allocation of capital rather than an over accumulation of capital. Developing countries need more factories and more power plants, which requires investment.

If you want to run with the global savings glut story you can, but it's different from the Marxist over accumulation story. That situation was driven by a lot of low income savers having their savings channeled into their economy's export sector and holding of foreign reserves via government policy. It wasn't a situation of capitalists saving too much and desperately trying to find a home for their capital. Their capital could have been used to finance domestic activity, but they chose to finance exports instead.

When you say it is a misallocation of capital, you are right, but you are also going against everything you said previously (the hypothesis of the efficiency of financial market, that I critized and that you tried to defend some month ago).

What was the context there? I've never argued that you get perfect results ex post. The best you can get is a good decision ex ante. You and I could be using different definitions of efficient.

Of course there is a misallocation (as in financial market are not working efficiently), but even if the capital was rightly allocated, it would not lead to an economic growth that is comparable to the rate of return on capital, for obvious reasons. When we say overaccumulation, nobody is saying there is too much capital - something that you don't seems to understand - but we imply that capital in relation to income has become too important and that there are no forces that would change this trend.

To evaluate that, you don't need to evaluate the capital in a society by itself, you need to evaluate the capital, in relation to the income, and thus the rate of return in relation to both GDP growth AND potential growth. In a world where GDP growth will never be high enough for the current rate of return on capital to be sustainable, you are in a situation of overaccumulation. I'm not talking about the global saving glut, by the way, because I'm not saying the demand is low for some theorical reasons and that we can fix the whole problem through policy that sustain demand, I'm saying the dynamics of capitalism push us towards a capital overaccumulation where demand is being restricted for profit - what needs to be fixed is capital and not demand.

You think Marx don't talk about demand ? You think Keynes and Marx are that far off ? Keynes is a just light Marx.

No I understand the argument. There's too much capital relative to demand. But I don't think that's correct and supported by the data.

"But capital to income has been increasing" ... yet trends change all the time. Just look at the US - falling savings rate and the return on capital may be falling for the long term as well. There's a lot of intelligent and honest discussions in the world of public pensions over whether or not their assumptions on portfolio rates of return need to be adjusted downward for the long run. A downward savings rate and rate of return would put a huge break on any 'over accumulation' here.

Similarly a lot of countries, like China, realized that export lead growth can't be a permanent thing and have been trying to readjust to domestic growth.

It's like I said before, you can't just assume a trend will continue and then complain that your extrapolation won't work. If it won't work, why would it continue?


You seem to be missing the part where a downward rate of return is a prime driver of overaccumulation. Capital is less likely to be reinvested and so sits unused by the capital owners.

Argue that with WiteDog. He's been citing r > g as the driver and the book he's been citing says that rate of return has been rather constant. I don't see how a lower rate of return is going to mean greater capital accumulation anyhow.

Rate of return is getting mathematically lower as the society relies heavily on capital, but the evolution is rather small (from 5-7% on average when the capital to income is low to 3-5% when the capital to income is higher if I remember correctly).
"every time WhiteDog overuses the word "seriously" in a comment I can make an observation on his fragile emotional state." MoltkeWarding
JonnyBNoHo
Profile Joined July 2011
United States6277 Posts
March 21 2014 20:43 GMT
#18969
On March 22 2014 05:32 WhiteDog wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 02:03 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:34 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:02 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 18:29 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 07:46 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 06:39 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:41 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:18 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
[quote]
There have been more than two crisis (great depression and today). Why are you linking these two? Moreover, why are you supposing that capital accumulation is the cause? Why not look to a bank run / credit crisis as the cause?

Well the bubble in 2000 have ressemblance but not at the same scale. I am not the one that made clear that there are big ressemblance between 2007 and 1929 - there are a tremendous number of paper and work on the subject. I'm not saying that the crisis was created by the accumulation per say (we already had this discussion), I am merely showing a direct correlation between the two (through the various graph).
The analysis of the impact of inequalities and capital accumulation on crisis is very complex and quite new, and I already gave my point of view on various occasion on that previously, so I will not enter in that area (the IMF, the OECD, and various economists such as Krugman are discussing this since some times now).

So you want to link accumulation with crisis? Then why add in inequality? The Marxian view doesn't stand up well in the US. We save little and import a vast amount of capital from overseas. Or just look at the graphs you posted - more inequality in the US yet Europe has more accumulation.

And what about how the latest crisis played out. Too much capital wasn't the issue, it was how the capital was structured and used that was the main issue. Look at your graphs again - there was a lot of capital accumulated in the UK / France for quite a while before the depression and the accumulation fluctuations in the US aren't very big (relatively).

How the capital was used and structured is linked to the accumulation. If inequalities and/or accumulation is too important (the two are obviously linked) then demand is lacking, and it is better to use capital income in sustaining demand - through credit (for the state or for individuals, just like during the "roaring twenties" or "la belle époque") - than to use it directly for production.

It is something I've stated countless time and you force me to restate it over and over. Everytime you refuse to acknowledge the deep macroeconomic background that participated in the 2007 crisis, and force us to talk everytime about financial innovations, risk management and whatever.

The US had a huge trade deficit nearing 6% of GDP at its worst. We weren't able to produce enough to meet our own demand by a long shot. Capital had no where to go? How about satisfying existing demand? Capital was ~450% of GDP in US but ~650% of GDP in France but we were over accumulating?

We were absorbing a huge amount of capital from other countries:

[image loading]source

we were over accumulating yet excess capital from all over the world flooded to the US?

And what happened during the crisis? Capital flowed out of the US!

You don't seems to understand. The huge trade deficit was only possible because of credits. The US basically sustained the world economy through debt - an artificial demand. I never said the US were specifically over accumulating capital, I said there is a global tendency of accumulation that is not sustainable in the long run : this touch both the US (at 500% of income) and France.
The US trade deficit is merely a result of the overall over accumulation of capital in the entire world : the US is not an island that we could just discuss after putting aside all other countries. I'm going to stop responding to your endless questions, I don't think I will be able to correct your incapacity to understand the big picture.

Like I already told IgnE, focusing on global over accumulation makes even less sense. Billions have far less capital stock to work with than the developed world and they're poorer for it. Capital flowing to the US to fund consumption is more of a mis allocation of capital rather than an over accumulation of capital. Developing countries need more factories and more power plants, which requires investment.

If you want to run with the global savings glut story you can, but it's different from the Marxist over accumulation story. That situation was driven by a lot of low income savers having their savings channeled into their economy's export sector and holding of foreign reserves via government policy. It wasn't a situation of capitalists saving too much and desperately trying to find a home for their capital. Their capital could have been used to finance domestic activity, but they chose to finance exports instead.

When you say it is a misallocation of capital, you are right, but you are also going against everything you said previously (the hypothesis of the efficiency of financial market, that I critized and that you tried to defend some month ago).

What was the context there? I've never argued that you get perfect results ex post. The best you can get is a good decision ex ante. You and I could be using different definitions of efficient.

Of course there is a misallocation (as in financial market are not working efficiently), but even if the capital was rightly allocated, it would not lead to an economic growth that is comparable to the rate of return on capital, for obvious reasons. When we say overaccumulation, nobody is saying there is too much capital - something that you don't seems to understand - but we imply that capital in relation to income has become too important and that there are no forces that would change this trend.

To evaluate that, you don't need to evaluate the capital in a society by itself, you need to evaluate the capital, in relation to the income, and thus the rate of return in relation to both GDP growth AND potential growth. In a world where GDP growth will never be high enough for the current rate of return on capital to be sustainable, you are in a situation of overaccumulation. I'm not talking about the global saving glut, by the way, because I'm not saying the demand is low for some theorical reasons and that we can fix the whole problem through policy that sustain demand, I'm saying the dynamics of capitalism push us towards a capital overaccumulation where demand is being restricted for profit - what needs to be fixed is capital and not demand.

You think Marx don't talk about demand ? You think Keynes and Marx are that far off ? Keynes is a just light Marx.

No I understand the argument. There's too much capital relative to demand. But I don't think that's correct and supported by the data.

"But capital to income has been increasing" ... yet trends change all the time. Just look at the US - falling savings rate and the return on capital may be falling for the long term as well. There's a lot of intelligent and honest discussions in the world of public pensions over whether or not their assumptions on portfolio rates of return need to be adjusted downward for the long run. A downward savings rate and rate of return would put a huge break on any 'over accumulation' here.

Similarly a lot of countries, like China, realized that export lead growth can't be a permanent thing and have been trying to readjust to domestic growth.

It's like I said before, you can't just assume a trend will continue and then complain that your extrapolation won't work. If it won't work, why would it continue?

Trends change all the time ? Do you see the graph I linked ? At which point do you see a change in this trend ?
The only moment where capital is getting lower is when it is effectively either destroyed by the second world war, or greatly reduced by taxations or crisis. It is the whole case behind the arguments : what does push our economy toward accumulation or not ? And the response is that there are no economic forces, aside from growth, that can prevent an endless accumulation of capital.

It is absolutly false, and rather short sighted, to make the comparaison between the rate of accumulation - something that with the current data has been shown to be quite constant in its evolution other the world - and any other kind of "predictions" where the historic data shows not only change in trends, but also an erratic evolution.

Did you see the graphs?

[image loading]

Let's see:

1770 - 1810 falling
1810 - 1910 rising
1910 - 1920 falling
1920 - 1930 rising
1930 - 1950 falling
1950 - now rising

or

[image loading]

1700 - 1810 stable
1810 - 1950 falling, rate of fall differs
1950 - now rising

Yep. Totally one trend all the time....

And let's use your equation r > g. Yet r has been falling... and could fall more...
WhiteDog
Profile Blog Joined November 2010
France8650 Posts
Last Edited: 2014-03-21 20:58:55
March 21 2014 20:47 GMT
#18970
On March 22 2014 05:43 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 05:32 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 22 2014 02:03 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:34 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:02 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 18:29 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 07:46 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 06:39 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:41 WhiteDog wrote:
[quote]
Well the bubble in 2000 have ressemblance but not at the same scale. I am not the one that made clear that there are big ressemblance between 2007 and 1929 - there are a tremendous number of paper and work on the subject. I'm not saying that the crisis was created by the accumulation per say (we already had this discussion), I am merely showing a direct correlation between the two (through the various graph).
The analysis of the impact of inequalities and capital accumulation on crisis is very complex and quite new, and I already gave my point of view on various occasion on that previously, so I will not enter in that area (the IMF, the OECD, and various economists such as Krugman are discussing this since some times now).

So you want to link accumulation with crisis? Then why add in inequality? The Marxian view doesn't stand up well in the US. We save little and import a vast amount of capital from overseas. Or just look at the graphs you posted - more inequality in the US yet Europe has more accumulation.

And what about how the latest crisis played out. Too much capital wasn't the issue, it was how the capital was structured and used that was the main issue. Look at your graphs again - there was a lot of capital accumulated in the UK / France for quite a while before the depression and the accumulation fluctuations in the US aren't very big (relatively).

How the capital was used and structured is linked to the accumulation. If inequalities and/or accumulation is too important (the two are obviously linked) then demand is lacking, and it is better to use capital income in sustaining demand - through credit (for the state or for individuals, just like during the "roaring twenties" or "la belle époque") - than to use it directly for production.

It is something I've stated countless time and you force me to restate it over and over. Everytime you refuse to acknowledge the deep macroeconomic background that participated in the 2007 crisis, and force us to talk everytime about financial innovations, risk management and whatever.

The US had a huge trade deficit nearing 6% of GDP at its worst. We weren't able to produce enough to meet our own demand by a long shot. Capital had no where to go? How about satisfying existing demand? Capital was ~450% of GDP in US but ~650% of GDP in France but we were over accumulating?

We were absorbing a huge amount of capital from other countries:

[image loading]source

we were over accumulating yet excess capital from all over the world flooded to the US?

And what happened during the crisis? Capital flowed out of the US!

You don't seems to understand. The huge trade deficit was only possible because of credits. The US basically sustained the world economy through debt - an artificial demand. I never said the US were specifically over accumulating capital, I said there is a global tendency of accumulation that is not sustainable in the long run : this touch both the US (at 500% of income) and France.
The US trade deficit is merely a result of the overall over accumulation of capital in the entire world : the US is not an island that we could just discuss after putting aside all other countries. I'm going to stop responding to your endless questions, I don't think I will be able to correct your incapacity to understand the big picture.

Like I already told IgnE, focusing on global over accumulation makes even less sense. Billions have far less capital stock to work with than the developed world and they're poorer for it. Capital flowing to the US to fund consumption is more of a mis allocation of capital rather than an over accumulation of capital. Developing countries need more factories and more power plants, which requires investment.

If you want to run with the global savings glut story you can, but it's different from the Marxist over accumulation story. That situation was driven by a lot of low income savers having their savings channeled into their economy's export sector and holding of foreign reserves via government policy. It wasn't a situation of capitalists saving too much and desperately trying to find a home for their capital. Their capital could have been used to finance domestic activity, but they chose to finance exports instead.

When you say it is a misallocation of capital, you are right, but you are also going against everything you said previously (the hypothesis of the efficiency of financial market, that I critized and that you tried to defend some month ago).

What was the context there? I've never argued that you get perfect results ex post. The best you can get is a good decision ex ante. You and I could be using different definitions of efficient.

Of course there is a misallocation (as in financial market are not working efficiently), but even if the capital was rightly allocated, it would not lead to an economic growth that is comparable to the rate of return on capital, for obvious reasons. When we say overaccumulation, nobody is saying there is too much capital - something that you don't seems to understand - but we imply that capital in relation to income has become too important and that there are no forces that would change this trend.

To evaluate that, you don't need to evaluate the capital in a society by itself, you need to evaluate the capital, in relation to the income, and thus the rate of return in relation to both GDP growth AND potential growth. In a world where GDP growth will never be high enough for the current rate of return on capital to be sustainable, you are in a situation of overaccumulation. I'm not talking about the global saving glut, by the way, because I'm not saying the demand is low for some theorical reasons and that we can fix the whole problem through policy that sustain demand, I'm saying the dynamics of capitalism push us towards a capital overaccumulation where demand is being restricted for profit - what needs to be fixed is capital and not demand.

You think Marx don't talk about demand ? You think Keynes and Marx are that far off ? Keynes is a just light Marx.

No I understand the argument. There's too much capital relative to demand. But I don't think that's correct and supported by the data.

"But capital to income has been increasing" ... yet trends change all the time. Just look at the US - falling savings rate and the return on capital may be falling for the long term as well. There's a lot of intelligent and honest discussions in the world of public pensions over whether or not their assumptions on portfolio rates of return need to be adjusted downward for the long run. A downward savings rate and rate of return would put a huge break on any 'over accumulation' here.

Similarly a lot of countries, like China, realized that export lead growth can't be a permanent thing and have been trying to readjust to domestic growth.

It's like I said before, you can't just assume a trend will continue and then complain that your extrapolation won't work. If it won't work, why would it continue?

Trends change all the time ? Do you see the graph I linked ? At which point do you see a change in this trend ?
The only moment where capital is getting lower is when it is effectively either destroyed by the second world war, or greatly reduced by taxations or crisis. It is the whole case behind the arguments : what does push our economy toward accumulation or not ? And the response is that there are no economic forces, aside from growth, that can prevent an endless accumulation of capital.

It is absolutly false, and rather short sighted, to make the comparaison between the rate of accumulation - something that with the current data has been shown to be quite constant in its evolution other the world - and any other kind of "predictions" where the historic data shows not only change in trends, but also an erratic evolution.

Did you see the graphs?

[image loading]

Let's see:

1770 - 1810 falling
1810 - 1910 rising
1910 - 1920 falling
1920 - 1930 rising
1930 - 1950 falling
1950 - now rising

or

[image loading]

1700 - 1810 stable
1810 - 1950 falling, rate of fall differs
1950 - now rising

Yep. Totally one trend all the time....

And let's use your equation r > g. Yet r has been falling... and could fall more...

1770-1810 in the US is artificially failing because of the end of slavery (yep it is evaluated as a capital).
1810-1910 (a hundred year ?) rising.
1910-1920 FIRST WORLD WAR
1920-1930 rising again ?
1930-1950 SECOND WORLD WAR, NEW DEAL
1950 - now rising (seventy years allo ?)

Do you see the graph ?

For the second : stable at 700% (a society where most of the upper class is full of rentier that are not working and who buy public debt)
1810-1910 : definitly not falling, just with the world wars, it is pretty stable from 1810 to 1910 at 700 %. You are thinking it is falling because you are not taking into consideration the net foreign capital.
1910-1950 world wars.
1950-today: rising.

And what is more, I'm just linking these two graph, but there are data for almost all countries of the OECD, and they are all the same. In fact the US is the only country that seems to be different and specific.
"every time WhiteDog overuses the word "seriously" in a comment I can make an observation on his fragile emotional state." MoltkeWarding
nunez
Profile Blog Joined February 2011
Norway4003 Posts
Last Edited: 2014-03-21 20:59:40
March 21 2014 20:52 GMT
#18971
On March 22 2014 04:31 GreenHorizons wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 03:31 {CC}StealthBlue wrote:
CHARLOTTE, N.C. (AP) — North Carolina regulators say Duke Energy illegally pumped 61 million gallons of contaminated water from a coal ash pit into the Cape Fear River, marking the eighth time in less than a month the nation's largest electricity company has been cited for environmental violations.

The pumping violated the terms of Duke's wastewater permit at its Cape Fear Plant, State Department of Environment and Natural Resources spokesman Jamie Kritzer said Thursday. Kritzer said the agency has issued Duke a formal notice of violation, which could result in hefty fines.

Regulators from the agency said the illegal pumping had been going on for months. It wasn't immediately clear if Duke's efforts to empty the pond were related to a crack in the earthen dam holding back the coal ash. Duke first disclosed the existence of the crack to regulators on Thursday.

Inspectors are trying to determine the cause of the crack, but the dike does not appear to be in imminent danger of collapse, said State Dam Safety Engineer Steve McEvoy.

Duke did not respond Thursday to requests for comment from The Associated Press.

A Feb. 2 pipe collapse at a similar Duke coal ash dump in Eden coated 70 miles of the Dan River with toxic sludge. Duke has nearly three dozen other ash pits spread out at 14 coal-fired power plants across the state.

The state is now testing water samples from the Cape Fear River for signs of hazardous chemicals. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead, mercury and other heavy metals highly toxic to humans and wildlife.

Several sizable cities and towns are downstream of the Duke plant, including Sanford, Dunn, Fayetteville and Wilmington. Kritzer said municipal officials in those communities have reported no problems with drinking water.

Duke's dumping was first spotted March 10 by the environmental group Waterkeeper Alliance, which took aerial photos of two large mobile pumps at the facility. The pumps appeared to be sucking water directly from a large coal ash dump into nearby woods and into a canal leading to the river.


Source



Yet another example of how after breaking the law on hundreds of occasions how long will they spend in prison... 0 days. Just pay up a fraction of what you made/saved by being a career criminal when you get caught and your free to go on to your next empirical fuck up.

"Equal justice under the law" my ass

nonono, it's called 'free market' skills.

edit: what is '% of national income' white dog? can you explain these graph in the context of that lecture you linked earlier? economy is mostly greek to me.
conspired against by a confederacy of dunces.
WhiteDog
Profile Blog Joined November 2010
France8650 Posts
Last Edited: 2014-03-21 21:04:13
March 21 2014 21:01 GMT
#18972
On March 22 2014 05:52 nunez wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 04:31 GreenHorizons wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:31 {CC}StealthBlue wrote:
CHARLOTTE, N.C. (AP) — North Carolina regulators say Duke Energy illegally pumped 61 million gallons of contaminated water from a coal ash pit into the Cape Fear River, marking the eighth time in less than a month the nation's largest electricity company has been cited for environmental violations.

The pumping violated the terms of Duke's wastewater permit at its Cape Fear Plant, State Department of Environment and Natural Resources spokesman Jamie Kritzer said Thursday. Kritzer said the agency has issued Duke a formal notice of violation, which could result in hefty fines.

Regulators from the agency said the illegal pumping had been going on for months. It wasn't immediately clear if Duke's efforts to empty the pond were related to a crack in the earthen dam holding back the coal ash. Duke first disclosed the existence of the crack to regulators on Thursday.

Inspectors are trying to determine the cause of the crack, but the dike does not appear to be in imminent danger of collapse, said State Dam Safety Engineer Steve McEvoy.

Duke did not respond Thursday to requests for comment from The Associated Press.

A Feb. 2 pipe collapse at a similar Duke coal ash dump in Eden coated 70 miles of the Dan River with toxic sludge. Duke has nearly three dozen other ash pits spread out at 14 coal-fired power plants across the state.

The state is now testing water samples from the Cape Fear River for signs of hazardous chemicals. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead, mercury and other heavy metals highly toxic to humans and wildlife.

Several sizable cities and towns are downstream of the Duke plant, including Sanford, Dunn, Fayetteville and Wilmington. Kritzer said municipal officials in those communities have reported no problems with drinking water.

Duke's dumping was first spotted March 10 by the environmental group Waterkeeper Alliance, which took aerial photos of two large mobile pumps at the facility. The pumps appeared to be sucking water directly from a large coal ash dump into nearby woods and into a canal leading to the river.


Source



Yet another example of how after breaking the law on hundreds of occasions how long will they spend in prison... 0 days. Just pay up a fraction of what you made/saved by being a career criminal when you get caught and your free to go on to your next empirical fuck up.

"Equal justice under the law" my ass

nonono, it's called 'free market' skills.

edit: what is '% of national income' white dog? can you explain these graph in the context of that lecture you linked earlier? economy is mostly greek to me.

It is the % of the entire wealth created by the production over one year. It is like saying that you need to work 7 years (700%) to buy the entire capital of the country with your income.

It is basically a way to evaluate the place of capital - which can take various forms, from housing to machines for productions) in a society in comparaison to work.
"every time WhiteDog overuses the word "seriously" in a comment I can make an observation on his fragile emotional state." MoltkeWarding
nunez
Profile Blog Joined February 2011
Norway4003 Posts
Last Edited: 2014-03-21 21:04:49
March 21 2014 21:03 GMT
#18973
and the kicker is that it's rising while the capital is not becoming less concentrated?
conspired against by a confederacy of dunces.
JonnyBNoHo
Profile Joined July 2011
United States6277 Posts
March 21 2014 21:04 GMT
#18974
On March 22 2014 05:47 WhiteDog wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 05:43 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 05:32 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 22 2014 02:03 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:34 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 22 2014 01:02 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 18:29 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 07:46 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 21 2014 06:39 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 21 2014 05:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
[quote]
So you want to link accumulation with crisis? Then why add in inequality? The Marxian view doesn't stand up well in the US. We save little and import a vast amount of capital from overseas. Or just look at the graphs you posted - more inequality in the US yet Europe has more accumulation.

And what about how the latest crisis played out. Too much capital wasn't the issue, it was how the capital was structured and used that was the main issue. Look at your graphs again - there was a lot of capital accumulated in the UK / France for quite a while before the depression and the accumulation fluctuations in the US aren't very big (relatively).

How the capital was used and structured is linked to the accumulation. If inequalities and/or accumulation is too important (the two are obviously linked) then demand is lacking, and it is better to use capital income in sustaining demand - through credit (for the state or for individuals, just like during the "roaring twenties" or "la belle époque") - than to use it directly for production.

It is something I've stated countless time and you force me to restate it over and over. Everytime you refuse to acknowledge the deep macroeconomic background that participated in the 2007 crisis, and force us to talk everytime about financial innovations, risk management and whatever.

The US had a huge trade deficit nearing 6% of GDP at its worst. We weren't able to produce enough to meet our own demand by a long shot. Capital had no where to go? How about satisfying existing demand? Capital was ~450% of GDP in US but ~650% of GDP in France but we were over accumulating?

We were absorbing a huge amount of capital from other countries:

[image loading]source

we were over accumulating yet excess capital from all over the world flooded to the US?

And what happened during the crisis? Capital flowed out of the US!

You don't seems to understand. The huge trade deficit was only possible because of credits. The US basically sustained the world economy through debt - an artificial demand. I never said the US were specifically over accumulating capital, I said there is a global tendency of accumulation that is not sustainable in the long run : this touch both the US (at 500% of income) and France.
The US trade deficit is merely a result of the overall over accumulation of capital in the entire world : the US is not an island that we could just discuss after putting aside all other countries. I'm going to stop responding to your endless questions, I don't think I will be able to correct your incapacity to understand the big picture.

Like I already told IgnE, focusing on global over accumulation makes even less sense. Billions have far less capital stock to work with than the developed world and they're poorer for it. Capital flowing to the US to fund consumption is more of a mis allocation of capital rather than an over accumulation of capital. Developing countries need more factories and more power plants, which requires investment.

If you want to run with the global savings glut story you can, but it's different from the Marxist over accumulation story. That situation was driven by a lot of low income savers having their savings channeled into their economy's export sector and holding of foreign reserves via government policy. It wasn't a situation of capitalists saving too much and desperately trying to find a home for their capital. Their capital could have been used to finance domestic activity, but they chose to finance exports instead.

When you say it is a misallocation of capital, you are right, but you are also going against everything you said previously (the hypothesis of the efficiency of financial market, that I critized and that you tried to defend some month ago).

What was the context there? I've never argued that you get perfect results ex post. The best you can get is a good decision ex ante. You and I could be using different definitions of efficient.

Of course there is a misallocation (as in financial market are not working efficiently), but even if the capital was rightly allocated, it would not lead to an economic growth that is comparable to the rate of return on capital, for obvious reasons. When we say overaccumulation, nobody is saying there is too much capital - something that you don't seems to understand - but we imply that capital in relation to income has become too important and that there are no forces that would change this trend.

To evaluate that, you don't need to evaluate the capital in a society by itself, you need to evaluate the capital, in relation to the income, and thus the rate of return in relation to both GDP growth AND potential growth. In a world where GDP growth will never be high enough for the current rate of return on capital to be sustainable, you are in a situation of overaccumulation. I'm not talking about the global saving glut, by the way, because I'm not saying the demand is low for some theorical reasons and that we can fix the whole problem through policy that sustain demand, I'm saying the dynamics of capitalism push us towards a capital overaccumulation where demand is being restricted for profit - what needs to be fixed is capital and not demand.

You think Marx don't talk about demand ? You think Keynes and Marx are that far off ? Keynes is a just light Marx.

No I understand the argument. There's too much capital relative to demand. But I don't think that's correct and supported by the data.

"But capital to income has been increasing" ... yet trends change all the time. Just look at the US - falling savings rate and the return on capital may be falling for the long term as well. There's a lot of intelligent and honest discussions in the world of public pensions over whether or not their assumptions on portfolio rates of return need to be adjusted downward for the long run. A downward savings rate and rate of return would put a huge break on any 'over accumulation' here.

Similarly a lot of countries, like China, realized that export lead growth can't be a permanent thing and have been trying to readjust to domestic growth.

It's like I said before, you can't just assume a trend will continue and then complain that your extrapolation won't work. If it won't work, why would it continue?

Trends change all the time ? Do you see the graph I linked ? At which point do you see a change in this trend ?
The only moment where capital is getting lower is when it is effectively either destroyed by the second world war, or greatly reduced by taxations or crisis. It is the whole case behind the arguments : what does push our economy toward accumulation or not ? And the response is that there are no economic forces, aside from growth, that can prevent an endless accumulation of capital.

It is absolutly false, and rather short sighted, to make the comparaison between the rate of accumulation - something that with the current data has been shown to be quite constant in its evolution other the world - and any other kind of "predictions" where the historic data shows not only change in trends, but also an erratic evolution.

Did you see the graphs?

[image loading]

Let's see:

1770 - 1810 falling
1810 - 1910 rising
1910 - 1920 falling
1920 - 1930 rising
1930 - 1950 falling
1950 - now rising

or

[image loading]

1700 - 1810 stable
1810 - 1950 falling, rate of fall differs
1950 - now rising

Yep. Totally one trend all the time....

And let's use your equation r > g. Yet r has been falling... and could fall more...

1770-1810 in the US is artificially failing because of the end of slavery (yep it is evaluated as a capital).
1810-1910 (a hundred year ?) rising.
1910-1920 FIRST WORLD WAR
1920-1930 rising again ?
1930-1950 SECOND WORLD WAR, NEW DEAL
1950 - now rising (seventy years allo ?)

Do you see the graph ?

For the second : stable at 700% (a society where most of the upper class is full of rentier that are not working and who buy public debt)
1810-1910 : definitly not falling, just with the world wars, it is pretty stable from 1810 to 1910 at 700 %. You are thinking it is falling because you are not taking into consideration the net foreign capital.
1910-1950 world wars.
1950-today: rising.

And what is more, I'm just linking these two graph, but there are data for almost all countries of the OECD, and they are all the same. In fact the US is the only country that seems to be different and specific.

Where do you see permanently rising? Stability, falling, rising...

I'm really tired of this. You show me a graph with many trends and then argue that there's only one. It's like dealing with a religious zealot.
WhiteDog
Profile Blog Joined November 2010
France8650 Posts
March 21 2014 21:07 GMT
#18975
On March 22 2014 06:03 nunez wrote:
and the kicker is that it's rising while not becoming less concentrated?

The idea is that our economic system (capitalism if you want) is great at building up capital, to a point where "work" (one of our most important value) is in fact becoming less and less important - receiving a smaller part of the income as time goes on. The fact it is concentrated in a few hand is another point.
"every time WhiteDog overuses the word "seriously" in a comment I can make an observation on his fragile emotional state." MoltkeWarding
kwizach
Profile Joined June 2011
3658 Posts
March 21 2014 21:07 GMT
#18976
Those graphs are from Piketty's book, right? Great read (also went to hear him speak at a conference, very interesting).
"Oedipus ruined a great sex life by asking too many questions." -- Stephen Colbert
WhiteDog
Profile Blog Joined November 2010
France8650 Posts
Last Edited: 2014-03-21 21:08:10
March 21 2014 21:08 GMT
#18977
On March 22 2014 06:07 kwizach wrote:
Those graphs are from Piketty's book, right? Great read (also went to hear him speak at a conference, very interesting).

Yes !
"every time WhiteDog overuses the word "seriously" in a comment I can make an observation on his fragile emotional state." MoltkeWarding
nunez
Profile Blog Joined February 2011
Norway4003 Posts
Last Edited: 2014-03-21 21:16:44
March 21 2014 21:10 GMT
#18978
On March 22 2014 06:07 WhiteDog wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 06:03 nunez wrote:
and the kicker is that it's rising while not becoming less concentrated?

The idea is that our economic system (capitalism if you want) is great at building up capital, to a point where "work" (one of our most important value) is in fact becoming less and less important - receiving a smaller part of the income as time goes on. The fact it is concentrated in a few hand is another point.

ah, ok, thx. to be more precise i was wondering if this wouldn't be an issue anymore if capital re-distribuited itself fast enough relative to how fast it grows? (hence i say 'not less concentrated', and not 'same or more concentrated').
conspired against by a confederacy of dunces.
WhiteDog
Profile Blog Joined November 2010
France8650 Posts
Last Edited: 2014-03-21 21:26:53
March 21 2014 21:20 GMT
#18979
On March 22 2014 06:10 nunez wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 06:07 WhiteDog wrote:
On March 22 2014 06:03 nunez wrote:
and the kicker is that it's rising while not becoming less concentrated?

The idea is that our economic system (capitalism if you want) is great at building up capital, to a point where "work" (one of our most important value) is in fact becoming less and less important - receiving a smaller part of the income as time goes on. The fact it is concentrated in a few hand is another point.

ah, ok, thx. to be more precise i was wondering if this wouldn't be an issue anymore if capital re-distribuited itself fast enough relative to how fast it grows? (hence i say 'not less concentrated', and not 'same or more concentrated').

Wait my answer was off.

You can redistribute the income coming from capital, but about "distributing capital" in itself (we are talking about housing, means of production, patterns, etc.), then you are talking about communism or mixed form of capitalism. Capitalism is based on the idea of the private property, and if capital is giving a better income than work, then people who already have capital can accumulate it faster (since they have a higher income), so it does tend to concentrate itself in a few hands.
Now you can argue for a collectivisation of the means of production (like communist) and thus prevent the accumulation and concentration, but distributing it in itself aside from that seems complicated.
"every time WhiteDog overuses the word "seriously" in a comment I can make an observation on his fragile emotional state." MoltkeWarding
JonnyBNoHo
Profile Joined July 2011
United States6277 Posts
March 21 2014 21:24 GMT
#18980
On March 22 2014 05:34 CannonsNCarriers wrote:
Show nested quote +
On March 22 2014 04:07 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:58 Sub40APM wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:56 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:40 Sub40APM wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:37 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:25 Sub40APM wrote:
On March 22 2014 03:22 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
On March 22 2014 02:56 CannonsNCarriers wrote:
On March 22 2014 02:44 JonnyBNoHo wrote:
[quote]
If robots are doing all the work there is no working class. You'd have to get rid of your capitalist / worker classification, which is artificial to begin with.


But the capitalist / worker labor market system is how gains from capital filter down to to workers. If the labor market dies due to robots, how will those who don't own robots eat? The labor market feeds them now, but that might go away. Society will need some alternative to the labor market is these robots do all the work.

PS: The obvious alternative is a tax and spend welfare state.

Or broader ownership.

I'd think most likely a mix of the two, with a relatively small labor market still existing.

why would I share my robot army with you if I have one?

why would I need you to share your robot army with me if I have one?

isnt that what you meant by 'broader ownership'? Some kind of stock ownership that allows the common man the benefits of a robot overlord?
It could be that. Depends on the robots...

Anyways, if we're talking stock you don't get the army unless you issue shares. That's part of the funding to get the robots. So it's similar to today - if you want to raise capital you need to reach out to a lot of places, many of which have strong ties to the common rabble (banks, insurance co.'s, pension funds, public trusts, endowments, etc.).

Not really. There are plenty of large wholly private companies.

Wholly private doesn't mean singular owner. Examples?

Edit: regardless, does it even matter? some guy owns a lot of robots... so what? unless you're supposing that one guy owns all the robots...


One guy will own all the robots when the labor market dies. For centuries the labor market has been capitalism's answer to redistribution policy. The problem is that the labor market is decaying and won't get any better in the future. % Wage gains year of year are lower than ever. You can talk about broader ownership of the means of production, but look at stock ownership. The working classes own less than ever before of the stock market. I see nothing right now that indicates that the wage workers of the future will own more means of production than they do now.

This is why I think the resolution to this problem has to come from taxes. If there is no market way to move wealth downwards (e.g., the labor market), then you have to have the state force it.

PS: maybe there are alternatives. Higher minimum wages and stronger union policy (which is a subsidy to labor bargaining power) could provide more market methods of stalling the inevitable wage decline.

The issue isn't relative ownership. The issue is if the former workers own enough capital for them to live off of. If they don't, you aren't going to have a situation where the capital owners are able to constantly increase their ownership share. They're going to be going broke.
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