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Read the rules in the OP before posting, please.

In order to ensure that this thread continues to meet TL standards and follows the proper guidelines, we will be enforcing the rules in the OP more strictly. Be sure to give them a re-read to refresh your memory! The vast majority of you are contributing in a healthy way, keep it up!

NOTE: When providing a source, explain why you feel it is relevant and what purpose it adds to the discussion if it's not obvious.
Also take note that unsubstantiated tweets/posts meant only to rekindle old arguments can result in a mod action.
xDaunt
Profile Joined March 2010
United States17988 Posts
July 26 2017 05:42 GMT
#163901
On July 26 2017 14:15 GreenHorizons wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 13:56 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:49 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:44 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:40 GreenHorizons wrote:
I just love how culture stops at the Greeks, like they didn't gain heaps of insight, ideas, and knowledge from Africa that in turn was critical in the development of their own interpretations.

But if you're trying to artificially and absurdly draw lines around "western culture" knowing a lot came from Africa kind of messes that up.

Historians don't use Africa as the starting place for Western culture because all cultures came from Africa if you go back far enough. Africa as a starting place doesn't provide context or meaning.

The problem with Africa is that in terms of human geography it's not a meaningful descriptor. North Africa is a part of the classical Mediterranean world, far more Greek/Roman than Britain ever was. East Africa was one of the oldest parts of the Semitic world and culture. It wasn't until the breakaway of the protestants that the crusades to return North Africa to "Europe" ceased (and turned first towards Northern Europe, then the New World). There is not really a historical basis for the exclusion of North Africa from the continent of Europe and the inclusion of, say, Romania. If we get into counterfactuals, without the reformation and the discovery of America I have little doubt that North Africa would be part of European nations.

It's not just "man came from Africa". It's far more than that. Africa was part of the heartland of the classical world, more so than Gaul, certainly more so than Britain.

I generally agree with all of this, but it doesn't change really go to my point of why historians have chosen Greece to be the starting point for Western culture.


But you understand how then something like the universe being rational is foundational to "western thought" but it's not a western idea. It predates any western notion by millennia.

This isn't a unique occurrence. Where historians and people like yourself basically say that it doesn't count before the Greeks learned about it. Then you give them names like "The Father of ______" as if they weren't drop outs of Kemetic College.

I get it, you and others want to draw some arbitrary line at the Greeks and call everything they inherited "Western culture", credit them as creators, discoverers, and inventors of things that came long before them, and place them on pedestals bereft of the shoulders they stand on.

But if it makes people feel better to think their idea of "western culture" is better than whatever stands in opposition more power to them I guess. What could possibly go wrong?

I really don't understand the resistance to historians almost universally crediting the Greeks as being founders of this stuff unless we're back to an irrational hatred of white people. If not the Greeks, then who? There clearly were parallel tracks of development in other cultures to one degree or another, but if the question is where does Western culture start, you still haven't made anything resembling an argument as to why it should be anyone other than the Greeks.
xDaunt
Profile Joined March 2010
United States17988 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 05:49:30
July 26 2017 05:46 GMT
#163902
On July 26 2017 14:40 Sermokala wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 14:36 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:01 Danglars wrote:
Thread treasure. And I hope he kept his receipt for the whole classics major thing.

You see the thing is, I can actually read the book we're discussing, and indeed I have read it. Whereas xDaunt could only link to a wikipedia article about the book in his own language, and honestly there wasn't much evidence that he had even read that. That's the difference having the education on the subject makes.

Lol, the evolution of natural law in Western culture isn't something that is reduced to a classical Greek text for very obvious reasons. C'mon, Kwark, you're smarter than this. And if you're actually trying to fool people, you're doing an abysmal job at it. No one's fooled by the charade.

If they're so obvious you shouldn't feel any trouble listing the reasons. Thread rule two violation.

Are you shitting me? Is it not obvious to you why a history of the evolution of a concept over the course of 2300+ years of western culture (from Aristotle to modern times) would not show up in an ancient Greek text? Since when did we have to start constantly pointing out the obvious in this thread?

Edit: Christ, I guess that means that people are being fooled by kwark's bullshit.
GreenHorizons
Profile Blog Joined April 2011
United States23488 Posts
July 26 2017 05:58 GMT
#163903
I really don't understand the resistance to historians almost universally crediting the Greeks as being founders of this stuff


Yeah, you've made that abundantly clear.

unless we're back to an irrational hatred of white people. If not the Greeks, then who?


Maybe the people who taught them it?

if the question is where does Western culture start, you still haven't made anything resembling an argument as to why it should be anyone other than the Greeks.


In fairness, that was the question at one point (from Igne). I pretty much dismissed the notion from the beginning. So that would probably be why you haven't found an argument to that effect.
"People like to look at history and think 'If that was me back then, I would have...' We're living through history, and the truth is, whatever you are doing now is probably what you would have done then" "Scratch a Liberal..."
Sermokala
Profile Blog Joined November 2010
United States14048 Posts
July 26 2017 05:59 GMT
#163904
On July 26 2017 14:46 xDaunt wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 14:40 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:36 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:01 Danglars wrote:
Thread treasure. And I hope he kept his receipt for the whole classics major thing.

You see the thing is, I can actually read the book we're discussing, and indeed I have read it. Whereas xDaunt could only link to a wikipedia article about the book in his own language, and honestly there wasn't much evidence that he had even read that. That's the difference having the education on the subject makes.

Lol, the evolution of natural law in Western culture isn't something that is reduced to a classical Greek text for very obvious reasons. C'mon, Kwark, you're smarter than this. And if you're actually trying to fool people, you're doing an abysmal job at it. No one's fooled by the charade.

If they're so obvious you shouldn't feel any trouble listing the reasons. Thread rule two violation.

Are you shitting me? Is it not obvious to you why a history of the evolution of a concept over the course of 2300+ years of western culture (from Aristotle to modern times) would not show up in an ancient Greek text? Since when did we have to start constantly pointing out the obvious in this thread?

Edit: Christ, I guess that means that people are being fooled by kwark's bullshit.

The concept hasn't been evolveing for 2300 years. There are clearly large gaps where him and his comporaries where lost or isolated. Theres no evidence that past an extremely small minority could even read the language that Aristotle wrote in. Theres no way that the magna carta in 1215 could have been influenced by writings that were being held by the Byzantines thousands of miles away in a language none of the people involved could read or know about. Maybe some monk in england at the time may have heard about the Greeks but theres no way he would have spread the knowledge that a king (through the pope) wasn't the be all end all of law and order.

Advancements had to have been made separate from the ancient philosophers. You can't argue anything more that they were used any more then to refine and defend ideas already created from the middle ages.
A wise man will say that he knows nothing. We're gona party like its 2752 Hail Dark Brandon
Aquanim
Profile Joined November 2012
Australia2849 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 06:09:52
July 26 2017 06:00 GMT
#163905
On July 26 2017 14:46 xDaunt wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 14:40 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:36 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:01 Danglars wrote:
Thread treasure. And I hope he kept his receipt for the whole classics major thing.

You see the thing is, I can actually read the book we're discussing, and indeed I have read it. Whereas xDaunt could only link to a wikipedia article about the book in his own language, and honestly there wasn't much evidence that he had even read that. That's the difference having the education on the subject makes.

Lol, the evolution of natural law in Western culture isn't something that is reduced to a classical Greek text for very obvious reasons. C'mon, Kwark, you're smarter than this. And if you're actually trying to fool people, you're doing an abysmal job at it. No one's fooled by the charade.

If they're so obvious you shouldn't feel any trouble listing the reasons. Thread rule two violation.

Are you shitting me? Is it not obvious to you why a history of the evolution of a concept over the course of 2300+ years of western culture (from Aristotle to modern times) would not show up in an ancient Greek text? Since when did we have to start constantly pointing out the obvious in this thread?

Edit: Christ, I guess that means that people are being fooled by kwark's bullshit.

Considering that (as I understand it) Kwark's point is that these ancient Greek texts are only very tenuously corrected to "Western culture" as it exists today, I'm fairly sure Sermokala hasn't followed what Kwark actually said (which would make your edit a complete non sequitur for the sole purpose of throwing shit at Sermokala and Kwark both), and I'm not at all sure that you did either.

EDIT: Okay, Sermokala's post directly above is more apropos to Kwark's actual argument. I may have misjudged on that score.
KwarK
Profile Blog Joined July 2006
United States43267 Posts
July 26 2017 06:06 GMT
#163906
On July 26 2017 14:42 xDaunt wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 14:15 GreenHorizons wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:56 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:49 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:44 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:40 GreenHorizons wrote:
I just love how culture stops at the Greeks, like they didn't gain heaps of insight, ideas, and knowledge from Africa that in turn was critical in the development of their own interpretations.

But if you're trying to artificially and absurdly draw lines around "western culture" knowing a lot came from Africa kind of messes that up.

Historians don't use Africa as the starting place for Western culture because all cultures came from Africa if you go back far enough. Africa as a starting place doesn't provide context or meaning.

The problem with Africa is that in terms of human geography it's not a meaningful descriptor. North Africa is a part of the classical Mediterranean world, far more Greek/Roman than Britain ever was. East Africa was one of the oldest parts of the Semitic world and culture. It wasn't until the breakaway of the protestants that the crusades to return North Africa to "Europe" ceased (and turned first towards Northern Europe, then the New World). There is not really a historical basis for the exclusion of North Africa from the continent of Europe and the inclusion of, say, Romania. If we get into counterfactuals, without the reformation and the discovery of America I have little doubt that North Africa would be part of European nations.

It's not just "man came from Africa". It's far more than that. Africa was part of the heartland of the classical world, more so than Gaul, certainly more so than Britain.

I generally agree with all of this, but it doesn't change really go to my point of why historians have chosen Greece to be the starting point for Western culture.


But you understand how then something like the universe being rational is foundational to "western thought" but it's not a western idea. It predates any western notion by millennia.

This isn't a unique occurrence. Where historians and people like yourself basically say that it doesn't count before the Greeks learned about it. Then you give them names like "The Father of ______" as if they weren't drop outs of Kemetic College.

I get it, you and others want to draw some arbitrary line at the Greeks and call everything they inherited "Western culture", credit them as creators, discoverers, and inventors of things that came long before them, and place them on pedestals bereft of the shoulders they stand on.

But if it makes people feel better to think their idea of "western culture" is better than whatever stands in opposition more power to them I guess. What could possibly go wrong?

I really don't understand the resistance to historians almost universally crediting the Greeks as being founders of this stuff unless we're back to an irrational hatred of white people. If not the Greeks, then who? There clearly were parallel tracks of development in other cultures to one degree or another, but if the question is where does Western culture start, you still haven't made anything resembling an argument as to why it should be anyone other than the Greeks.

Greeks weren't white people so that can't be it. Also stop presenting yourself as voicing the view of historians, you're voicing the view of 18th Century mythic past authors. The same people who decided that everything had to be white marble because they didn't know that the paint on all the Greek statues had worn off. The resistance mainly comes from an academic objection to precisely the myth you're attempting to paint as a consensus. Historians spend their time attempting to refute your idea of what historians say, probably because, like me, they find it infuriating. Except for German archeologists who start dynamiting ruins to find Troy and we're not very fond of them these days.

As for when it starts, the concept doesn't really work. History doesn't really do fixed start dates. The Persian Wars are a common theme but they didn't really involve Europe and were a relatively minor affair in any case, part of a much longer series of conflicts throughout the near East that had already been going on for a very long time. Attempting to delineate history by region or time is always going to be pretty arbitrary. Fall of the Roman Empire in the West is another common marker for the end of antiquity, the problem being as I alluded to earlier, historians have gone and revised that and now late antiquity is a thing.

Greece is as good (or as bad) as any other but it's pretty fucking arbitrary and was chosen mostly out of vanity. It's a cultural myth, as I keep labouring. The challenge that unless someone can state definitely when western history starts then it's the Greeks is a little absurd, I could say the same for the foundation of Tyre. You're demanding that people disprove a negative to refute your claim.
ModeratorThe angels have the phone box
xDaunt
Profile Joined March 2010
United States17988 Posts
July 26 2017 06:14 GMT
#163907
On July 26 2017 15:00 Aquanim wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 14:46 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:40 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:36 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:01 Danglars wrote:
Thread treasure. And I hope he kept his receipt for the whole classics major thing.

You see the thing is, I can actually read the book we're discussing, and indeed I have read it. Whereas xDaunt could only link to a wikipedia article about the book in his own language, and honestly there wasn't much evidence that he had even read that. That's the difference having the education on the subject makes.

Lol, the evolution of natural law in Western culture isn't something that is reduced to a classical Greek text for very obvious reasons. C'mon, Kwark, you're smarter than this. And if you're actually trying to fool people, you're doing an abysmal job at it. No one's fooled by the charade.

If they're so obvious you shouldn't feel any trouble listing the reasons. Thread rule two violation.

Are you shitting me? Is it not obvious to you why a history of the evolution of a concept over the course of 2300+ years of western culture (from Aristotle to modern times) would not show up in an ancient Greek text? Since when did we have to start constantly pointing out the obvious in this thread?

Edit: Christ, I guess that means that people are being fooled by kwark's bullshit.

Considering that (as I understand it) Kwark's point is that these ancient Greek texts are only very tenuously corrected to "Western culture" as it exists today, I'm fairly sure Sermokala hasn't followed what Kwark actually said (which would make your edit a complete non sequitur for the sole purpose of throwing shit at Sermokala and Kwark both), and I'm not at all sure that you did either.

No, I have followed kwark's argument and its movement quite carefully. It went from "there is no link from Christian/Roman/Greek culture to Western culture" to, upon being confronted with unequivocal evidence that there was such a link, to "yeah, but modern people would have come up with this stuff anyway." The bankruptcy there is patent.

And as for sermokala, I really don't give a shit whether he was paying attention to the whole argument or not. He took a shot at me, which deserved a response. That he may have done so without knowing what he was responding to doesn't make it less egregious.
mozoku
Profile Joined September 2012
United States708 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 14:56:43
July 26 2017 06:19 GMT
#163908
On July 26 2017 14:35 Sermokala wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 14:24 mozoku wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:54 mozoku wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:46 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:29 mozoku wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:14 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:06 ZerOCoolSC2 wrote:
On July 26 2017 12:56 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 12:51 TheTenthDoc wrote:
[quote]

That reply doesn't really mention if you find anything unsavory or improveable about Western culture?

It just kind of says "well, some parts of Western culture changed because of Western culture" or perhaps "some parts are not uniquely Western or were born from other cultures and then changed because of Western thinking and therefore are not really part of Western culture" which is an odd distinction...and doesn't really answer if you think Western culture has any negative points, regardless.

I pretty clearly acknowledged in that post that Western culture has had its moral failings (slavery being directly discussed).

But, given the discussion that we have been having today, I do have in mind something more current that deserves criticism: Western culture's emerging tradition of self-loathing. That so many people don't see the value in promoting and defending Western culture is truly abhorrent.

Are you asking why we don't continue imperialism and forcing others to assimilate to our own defined notions of what is the best way to conduct/govern a society? Honest question.

If there is any truth to "western culture" being under attack I think it has to be in this. Western civilization repeats the themes of "bringing civilization to the unwashed barbarians". Imperialism and forcing others to assimilate to our way of doing things is the legacy of everything that we are today. In many cases our way of doing things is better then other peoples and I won't hear anyone saying otherwise. That we should or shouldn't force other people to do things our way is the real development in the modern age.

This isn't unique to Western civilization in the slightest. Calling it "Western" doesn't really make any sense.

Unless you mean only the last sentence is uniquely Western. Then I might agree.

What other culture based itself on a process of assimilation and imperialism? The Chinese stayed roughly the same shape and area their entire civilization. that they existed as a solid people without migrating is an accomplishment but any ethnic group the Romans were they were wiped out almost completely in Italy by barbarian tribes or at least forced down into Sicily. who else made roads so that it was easier to trade with and oppress peoples other then their own ethnic group?

Your Chinese history is a little off.

The "Chinese" weren't a single country like you see today until the 20th century. There's something like 50 ethnic groups that make up China. The Hans were generally the most successful ethnic group (as in more advanced and did the most conquering), and deliberately moved Han people into conquered ethnic groups to "sinicize" them. There's an entire Wikipedia page for the term. They're still doing this today with the Tibetans and Uighurs.

Modern China still teaches it's youth that the Japanese were barbarians until the Chinese sailed to Japan and tamed them.

The Mongols and Manchu generally did the same thing to the Han in the Yuan and Qing dynasties respectively, but to a lesser extent because the Hans were more advanced economically and bureaucratically than their rulers.

The dynasties that make up what we call china where all in the same area. They didn't take over the Vietnamese or plant themselves firmly on the Korean peninsula. Northern china was filled with various horselords until Genghis came knocking. Not to mention their focus on isolation. They invented most of what they are credited for unlike the Romans who literally never through up a thing in their existence instead taking from others that was best and moving on with it as their own. Assimilation is a two way street and the Han migrations isn't assimilation. Rome didn't "conquer" most lands when they could simply "ally" with them until they were able to absorb them into the roman system completely.

You're misunderstanding the fundamental point. They weren't "Chinese" until they were conquered by the Han and forced to convert to the Han way of life. The "horselords" were the Manchu I'm guessing, who were a totally different civilization at the time than the Song dynasty dominated by the Han.

And the Tang (?) dynasty most definitely did invade the Korean peninsula, but they lost the war.

Sorry, but you clearly didn't understand much of anything about Chinese history when you started and you're not going to understand in the timeframe where we have this discussion.

But even the way you say it you don't pretend to argue that they were assimilating the locals into the "Chinese" way of doing things and that they instead forced the non Han groups into Han ways of things. Rome never had enough of its own people to simply move in with their own ethnic group and take over the area while the Chinese did. They're completely different ways of nation growing. The British were from a small island and yet were able to administer from there their whole empire by following the example from the Romans. I didn't say that the Chinese didn't invade Korea I said that they didn't plant themselves on the korean peninsula like a roman "alliance" would have.

Why does it matter that it's a separate method of nation-building? The Han belief in the their cultural/ethnic superiority is well documented. Besides, most of modern Tibet and the Uighur province today aren't majority Han. The CCP still insists on "modernizing" the people of both provinces against their will. They don't want to be ruled or "Han-ized." Which totally defeats your point that perceived cultural supremacy and forcing it on to others is something that's unique to Western culture.

xDaunt presented a number of similar examples. Your original premise just wasn't even close to true.

And for the record, I don't call it the "Chinese" way of doing things because because the civilizations conquered by the Han 1000+ years ago consider themselves Chinese now, but certainly weren't Chinese when they were being conquered by the Han. And because the Hans are the dominant Chinese ethnic group today, they define modern "Chinese history" to basically mean "Han history." It doesn't make sense to use the term "Chinese" when talking about Chinese history unless you're talking to someone who actually knows what Chinese history does and doesn't cover. Otherwise they'll just assume you mean "the history of all the people within the borders of modern-day China", which is a completely inaccurate definition of Chinese history.
Aquanim
Profile Joined November 2012
Australia2849 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 06:21:42
July 26 2017 06:21 GMT
#163909
On July 26 2017 15:14 xDaunt wrote:
No, I have followed kwark's argument and its movement quite carefully. It went from "there is no link from Christian/Roman/Greek culture to Western culture" to, upon being confronted with unequivocal evidence that there was such a link, to "yeah, but modern people would have come up with this stuff anyway." The bankruptcy there is patent.

I don't think Kwark was ever arguing that there is literally "no link". Perhaps he expressed himself poorly at some point.

This is probably the point at which we should enquire with Kwark for further clarification as to whether the above is an accurate representation of his beliefs.
And as for sermokala, I really don't give a shit whether he was paying attention to the whole argument or not. He took a shot at me, which deserved a response. That he may have done so without knowing what he was responding to doesn't make it less egregious.

Are you here to educate yourself, to educate others, or just to get into a pissing match with your philosophy education?
(The lot of you should probably think about that.)
KwarK
Profile Blog Joined July 2006
United States43267 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 06:24:00
July 26 2017 06:21 GMT
#163910
On July 26 2017 15:14 xDaunt wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 15:00 Aquanim wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:46 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:40 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:36 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:01 Danglars wrote:
Thread treasure. And I hope he kept his receipt for the whole classics major thing.

You see the thing is, I can actually read the book we're discussing, and indeed I have read it. Whereas xDaunt could only link to a wikipedia article about the book in his own language, and honestly there wasn't much evidence that he had even read that. That's the difference having the education on the subject makes.

Lol, the evolution of natural law in Western culture isn't something that is reduced to a classical Greek text for very obvious reasons. C'mon, Kwark, you're smarter than this. And if you're actually trying to fool people, you're doing an abysmal job at it. No one's fooled by the charade.

If they're so obvious you shouldn't feel any trouble listing the reasons. Thread rule two violation.

Are you shitting me? Is it not obvious to you why a history of the evolution of a concept over the course of 2300+ years of western culture (from Aristotle to modern times) would not show up in an ancient Greek text? Since when did we have to start constantly pointing out the obvious in this thread?

Edit: Christ, I guess that means that people are being fooled by kwark's bullshit.

Considering that (as I understand it) Kwark's point is that these ancient Greek texts are only very tenuously corrected to "Western culture" as it exists today, I'm fairly sure Sermokala hasn't followed what Kwark actually said (which would make your edit a complete non sequitur for the sole purpose of throwing shit at Sermokala and Kwark both), and I'm not at all sure that you did either.

No, I have followed kwark's argument and its movement quite carefully. It went from "there is no link from Christian/Roman/Greek culture to Western culture" to, upon being confronted with unequivocal evidence that there was such a link, to "yeah, but modern people would have come up with this stuff anyway." The bankruptcy there is patent.

Quite the opposite. It went from you claiming that Christian/Roman/Greek culture was the foundation to modern western culture to "well if it wasn't then how come Jefferson read a book and anyway you can't name a better start point for history".

The modern western culture is a modern western development that is as much a product of its own time and place in history as anything can be. I stand by that. Obviously there are links between different peoples at different times but the popular myth, that the Greeks invented democracy and the Olympic games and then gave them to the Romans who invented the Republic and marble and that's how we're here, that's a bedtime story that has somehow infected the public consciousness and just won't leave. Greece does not have a special or unique place in western cultural history. It's simply a part of the broader historical context. 1066 AD is as good as 490 BCE to me.
ModeratorThe angels have the phone box
Sermokala
Profile Blog Joined November 2010
United States14048 Posts
July 26 2017 06:24 GMT
#163911
On July 26 2017 15:14 xDaunt wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 15:00 Aquanim wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:46 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:40 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:36 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:01 Danglars wrote:
Thread treasure. And I hope he kept his receipt for the whole classics major thing.

You see the thing is, I can actually read the book we're discussing, and indeed I have read it. Whereas xDaunt could only link to a wikipedia article about the book in his own language, and honestly there wasn't much evidence that he had even read that. That's the difference having the education on the subject makes.

Lol, the evolution of natural law in Western culture isn't something that is reduced to a classical Greek text for very obvious reasons. C'mon, Kwark, you're smarter than this. And if you're actually trying to fool people, you're doing an abysmal job at it. No one's fooled by the charade.

If they're so obvious you shouldn't feel any trouble listing the reasons. Thread rule two violation.

Are you shitting me? Is it not obvious to you why a history of the evolution of a concept over the course of 2300+ years of western culture (from Aristotle to modern times) would not show up in an ancient Greek text? Since when did we have to start constantly pointing out the obvious in this thread?

Edit: Christ, I guess that means that people are being fooled by kwark's bullshit.

Considering that (as I understand it) Kwark's point is that these ancient Greek texts are only very tenuously corrected to "Western culture" as it exists today, I'm fairly sure Sermokala hasn't followed what Kwark actually said (which would make your edit a complete non sequitur for the sole purpose of throwing shit at Sermokala and Kwark both), and I'm not at all sure that you did either.

No, I have followed kwark's argument and its movement quite carefully. It went from "there is no link from Christian/Roman/Greek culture to Western culture" to, upon being confronted with unequivocal evidence that there was such a link, to "yeah, but modern people would have come up with this stuff anyway." The bankruptcy there is patent.

And as for sermokala, I really don't give a shit whether he was paying attention to the whole argument or not. He took a shot at me, which deserved a response. That he may have done so without knowing what he was responding to doesn't make it less egregious.

I read up on the whole argument I read almost the whole thread even if I don't feel like responding most of the time. You were pulling a zeflin on your argument. My point was that if you're going to credit the Greeks you have to credit the Phoenicians because they were the ones that set up the med so that Greece could exist as it was. The Greeks never accomplished anything and their writings weren't publicly available or known until well after most of what would become western culture was created. saying the greeks were influencing the west for 2300 years is just mythos building like kwark said. You're the one whos failing to see facts as they are.
A wise man will say that he knows nothing. We're gona party like its 2752 Hail Dark Brandon
KwarK
Profile Blog Joined July 2006
United States43267 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 06:43:09
July 26 2017 06:29 GMT
#163912
On July 26 2017 15:24 Sermokala wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 15:14 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 15:00 Aquanim wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:46 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:40 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:36 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:01 Danglars wrote:
Thread treasure. And I hope he kept his receipt for the whole classics major thing.

You see the thing is, I can actually read the book we're discussing, and indeed I have read it. Whereas xDaunt could only link to a wikipedia article about the book in his own language, and honestly there wasn't much evidence that he had even read that. That's the difference having the education on the subject makes.

Lol, the evolution of natural law in Western culture isn't something that is reduced to a classical Greek text for very obvious reasons. C'mon, Kwark, you're smarter than this. And if you're actually trying to fool people, you're doing an abysmal job at it. No one's fooled by the charade.

If they're so obvious you shouldn't feel any trouble listing the reasons. Thread rule two violation.

Are you shitting me? Is it not obvious to you why a history of the evolution of a concept over the course of 2300+ years of western culture (from Aristotle to modern times) would not show up in an ancient Greek text? Since when did we have to start constantly pointing out the obvious in this thread?

Edit: Christ, I guess that means that people are being fooled by kwark's bullshit.

Considering that (as I understand it) Kwark's point is that these ancient Greek texts are only very tenuously corrected to "Western culture" as it exists today, I'm fairly sure Sermokala hasn't followed what Kwark actually said (which would make your edit a complete non sequitur for the sole purpose of throwing shit at Sermokala and Kwark both), and I'm not at all sure that you did either.

No, I have followed kwark's argument and its movement quite carefully. It went from "there is no link from Christian/Roman/Greek culture to Western culture" to, upon being confronted with unequivocal evidence that there was such a link, to "yeah, but modern people would have come up with this stuff anyway." The bankruptcy there is patent.

And as for sermokala, I really don't give a shit whether he was paying attention to the whole argument or not. He took a shot at me, which deserved a response. That he may have done so without knowing what he was responding to doesn't make it less egregious.

I read up on the whole argument I read almost the whole thread even if I don't feel like responding most of the time. You were pulling a zeflin on your argument. My point was that if you're going to credit the Greeks you have to credit the Phoenicians because they were the ones that set up the med so that Greece could exist as it was. The Greeks never accomplished anything and their writings weren't publicly available or known until well after most of what would become western culture was created. saying the greeks were influencing the west for 2300 years is just mythos building like kwark said. You're the one whos failing to see facts as they are.

If I may correct you, Alexander got shit done, he changed the world as much as an individual can. But he's very much not what people are talking about when they say "the Greeks". They're talking about a specific three decades of Athenian history. The Greeks didn't achieve much in that time, mostly just killing a lot of other Greeks. Alexander isn't really viewed as a part of the history of western civilization. Which is part of the problem too, the transition from Hellenic polis to Hellenistic kingdoms is a huge part of the evolution of states in the Eastern Mediterranean but the myth doesn't give a shit about that, it's all democracy and the film 300. Sure, all the shit he actually did was in Asia but so was everything back then, Europe hadn't really started yet.
ModeratorThe angels have the phone box
Sermokala
Profile Blog Joined November 2010
United States14048 Posts
July 26 2017 06:29 GMT
#163913
On July 26 2017 15:19 mozoku wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 14:35 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:24 mozoku wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:54 mozoku wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:46 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:29 mozoku wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:14 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 13:06 ZerOCoolSC2 wrote:
On July 26 2017 12:56 xDaunt wrote:
[quote]
I pretty clearly acknowledged in that post that Western culture has had its moral failings (slavery being directly discussed).

But, given the discussion that we have been having today, I do have in mind something more current that deserves criticism: Western culture's emerging tradition of self-loathing. That so many people don't see the value in promoting and defending Western culture is truly abhorrent.

Are you asking why we don't continue imperialism and forcing others to assimilate to our own defined notions of what is the best way to conduct/govern a society? Honest question.

If there is any truth to "western culture" being under attack I think it has to be in this. Western civilization repeats the themes of "bringing civilization to the unwashed barbarians". Imperialism and forcing others to assimilate to our way of doing things is the legacy of everything that we are today. In many cases our way of doing things is better then other peoples and I won't hear anyone saying otherwise. That we should or shouldn't force other people to do things our way is the real development in the modern age.

This isn't unique to Western civilization in the slightest. Calling it "Western" doesn't really make any sense.

Unless you mean only the last sentence is uniquely Western. Then I might agree.

What other culture based itself on a process of assimilation and imperialism? The Chinese stayed roughly the same shape and area their entire civilization. that they existed as a solid people without migrating is an accomplishment but any ethnic group the Romans were they were wiped out almost completely in Italy by barbarian tribes or at least forced down into Sicily. who else made roads so that it was easier to trade with and oppress peoples other then their own ethnic group?

Your Chinese history is a little off.

The "Chinese" weren't a single country like you see today until the 20th century. There's something like 50 ethnic groups that make up China. The Hans were generally the most successful ethnic group (as in more advanced and did the most conquering), and deliberately moved Han people into conquered ethnic groups to "sinicize" them. There's an entire Wikipedia page for the term. They're still doing this today with the Tibetans and Uighurs.

Modern China still teaches it's youth that the Japanese were barbarians until the Chinese sailed to Japan and tamed them.

The Mongols and Manchu generally did the same thing to the Han in the Yuan and Qing dynasties respectively, but to a lesser extent because the Hans were more advanced economically and bureaucratically than their rulers.

The dynasties that make up what we call china where all in the same area. They didn't take over the Vietnamese or plant themselves firmly on the Korean peninsula. Northern china was filled with various horselords until Genghis came knocking. Not to mention their focus on isolation. They invented most of what they are credited for unlike the Romans who literally never through up a thing in their existence instead taking from others that was best and moving on with it as their own. Assimilation is a two way street and the Han migrations isn't assimilation. Rome didn't "conquer" most lands when they could simply "ally" with them until they were able to absorb them into the roman system completely.

You're misunderstanding the fundamental point. They weren't "Chinese" until they were conquered by the Han and forced to convert to the Han way of life. The "horselords" were the Manchu I'm guessing, who were a totally different civilization at the time than the Song dynasty dominated by the Han.

And the Tang (?) dynasty most definitely did invade the Korean peninsula, but they lost the war.

Sorry, but you clearly didn't understand much of anything about Chinese history when you started and you're not going to understand in the timeframe where we have this discussion.

But even the way you say it you don't pretend to argue that they were assimilating the locals into the "Chinese" way of doing things and that they instead forced the non Han groups into Han ways of things. Rome never had enough of its own people to simply move in with their own ethnic group and take over the area while the Chinese did. They're completely different ways of nation growing. The British were from a small island and yet were able to administer from there their whole empire by following the example from the Romans. I didn't say that the Chinese didn't invade Korea I said that they didn't plant themselves on the korean peninsula like a roman "alliance" would have.

Why does it matter that it's a separate method of nation-building? The Han belief in the their cultural/ethnic superiority is well documented. Besides, most of modern Tibet and the Uighur province today aren't majority Han. The CCP still insists on "modernizing" the people of both provinces against their will. They don't want to be ruled or "Han-ized." Which totally defeats your point that perceived cultural supremacy and forcing it on to others is something that's unique to Western culture.

xDaunt presented a number of similar examples. Your original premise just wasn't even close to true.

Beacuse you're the one thats arguing that the Romans weren't unique and the Chinese did the same as them. You can't change a non han chinese person to be a han Chinese person but you can romanize people by making them want to be roman. Romans just asked people to bend the knee and pay taxes. your example of the Chinese is them changing the local 's culture to hand culture. Its completely different and what I said is true. My point wasn't that perceived cultural supremacy was different my point was how the Romans got about spreading their culture was unique which is true.
A wise man will say that he knows nothing. We're gona party like its 2752 Hail Dark Brandon
IgnE
Profile Joined November 2010
United States7681 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 07:03:33
July 26 2017 07:01 GMT
#163914
On July 26 2017 15:29 KwarK wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 15:24 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 15:14 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 15:00 Aquanim wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:46 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:40 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:36 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:01 Danglars wrote:
Thread treasure. And I hope he kept his receipt for the whole classics major thing.

You see the thing is, I can actually read the book we're discussing, and indeed I have read it. Whereas xDaunt could only link to a wikipedia article about the book in his own language, and honestly there wasn't much evidence that he had even read that. That's the difference having the education on the subject makes.

Lol, the evolution of natural law in Western culture isn't something that is reduced to a classical Greek text for very obvious reasons. C'mon, Kwark, you're smarter than this. And if you're actually trying to fool people, you're doing an abysmal job at it. No one's fooled by the charade.

If they're so obvious you shouldn't feel any trouble listing the reasons. Thread rule two violation.

Are you shitting me? Is it not obvious to you why a history of the evolution of a concept over the course of 2300+ years of western culture (from Aristotle to modern times) would not show up in an ancient Greek text? Since when did we have to start constantly pointing out the obvious in this thread?

Edit: Christ, I guess that means that people are being fooled by kwark's bullshit.

Considering that (as I understand it) Kwark's point is that these ancient Greek texts are only very tenuously corrected to "Western culture" as it exists today, I'm fairly sure Sermokala hasn't followed what Kwark actually said (which would make your edit a complete non sequitur for the sole purpose of throwing shit at Sermokala and Kwark both), and I'm not at all sure that you did either.

No, I have followed kwark's argument and its movement quite carefully. It went from "there is no link from Christian/Roman/Greek culture to Western culture" to, upon being confronted with unequivocal evidence that there was such a link, to "yeah, but modern people would have come up with this stuff anyway." The bankruptcy there is patent.

And as for sermokala, I really don't give a shit whether he was paying attention to the whole argument or not. He took a shot at me, which deserved a response. That he may have done so without knowing what he was responding to doesn't make it less egregious.

I read up on the whole argument I read almost the whole thread even if I don't feel like responding most of the time. You were pulling a zeflin on your argument. My point was that if you're going to credit the Greeks you have to credit the Phoenicians because they were the ones that set up the med so that Greece could exist as it was. The Greeks never accomplished anything and their writings weren't publicly available or known until well after most of what would become western culture was created. saying the greeks were influencing the west for 2300 years is just mythos building like kwark said. You're the one whos failing to see facts as they are.

If I may correct you, Alexander got shit done, he changed the world as much as an individual can. But he's very much not what people are talking about when they say "the Greeks". They're talking about a specific three decades of Athenian history. The Greeks didn't achieve much in that time, mostly just killing a lot of other Greeks. Alexander isn't really viewed as a part of the history of western civilization. Which is part of the problem too, the transition from Hellenic polis to Hellenistic kingdoms is a huge part of the evolution of states in the Eastern Mediterranean but the myth doesn't give a shit about that, it's all democracy and the film 300. Sure, all the shit he actually did was in Asia but so was everything back then, Europe hadn't really started yet.


which three are those? because when i say the Greeks I'm talking about Homer through the pre-socratics in asia minor through aristotle's pupil Alexander. you are just making broad characterizations now about how you think some people some where view history. in fact i would go so far as to say that democracy is not even near the top of the list on greek contributions to western culture.

how about drama and comedy ? have any of you heard of oedipus? freud maybe? is he a contributor to western culture?

this whole discussion is so inane. its like a bunch of amateur historians got together and started talking about the hoi polloi out there who don't understand theban weapon technology in 438bc.
The unrealistic sound of these propositions is indicative, not of their utopian character, but of the strength of the forces which prevent their realization.
WolfintheSheep
Profile Joined June 2011
Canada14127 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 07:07:40
July 26 2017 07:07 GMT
#163915
I'm still hoping this discussion reaches the part where the ancient founders of western civilization who's beliefs and writings have withstood collapses of civilizations, wars of grand scale, cultural shifts, integration and splits, are at risk of being killed by the 21st century noisy left.

The American noisy left, mind you.
Average means I'm better than half of you.
KwarK
Profile Blog Joined July 2006
United States43267 Posts
July 26 2017 07:33 GMT
#163916
On July 26 2017 16:01 IgnE wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 15:29 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 15:24 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 15:14 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 15:00 Aquanim wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:46 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:40 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:36 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:01 Danglars wrote:
Thread treasure. And I hope he kept his receipt for the whole classics major thing.

You see the thing is, I can actually read the book we're discussing, and indeed I have read it. Whereas xDaunt could only link to a wikipedia article about the book in his own language, and honestly there wasn't much evidence that he had even read that. That's the difference having the education on the subject makes.

Lol, the evolution of natural law in Western culture isn't something that is reduced to a classical Greek text for very obvious reasons. C'mon, Kwark, you're smarter than this. And if you're actually trying to fool people, you're doing an abysmal job at it. No one's fooled by the charade.

If they're so obvious you shouldn't feel any trouble listing the reasons. Thread rule two violation.

Are you shitting me? Is it not obvious to you why a history of the evolution of a concept over the course of 2300+ years of western culture (from Aristotle to modern times) would not show up in an ancient Greek text? Since when did we have to start constantly pointing out the obvious in this thread?

Edit: Christ, I guess that means that people are being fooled by kwark's bullshit.

Considering that (as I understand it) Kwark's point is that these ancient Greek texts are only very tenuously corrected to "Western culture" as it exists today, I'm fairly sure Sermokala hasn't followed what Kwark actually said (which would make your edit a complete non sequitur for the sole purpose of throwing shit at Sermokala and Kwark both), and I'm not at all sure that you did either.

No, I have followed kwark's argument and its movement quite carefully. It went from "there is no link from Christian/Roman/Greek culture to Western culture" to, upon being confronted with unequivocal evidence that there was such a link, to "yeah, but modern people would have come up with this stuff anyway." The bankruptcy there is patent.

And as for sermokala, I really don't give a shit whether he was paying attention to the whole argument or not. He took a shot at me, which deserved a response. That he may have done so without knowing what he was responding to doesn't make it less egregious.

I read up on the whole argument I read almost the whole thread even if I don't feel like responding most of the time. You were pulling a zeflin on your argument. My point was that if you're going to credit the Greeks you have to credit the Phoenicians because they were the ones that set up the med so that Greece could exist as it was. The Greeks never accomplished anything and their writings weren't publicly available or known until well after most of what would become western culture was created. saying the greeks were influencing the west for 2300 years is just mythos building like kwark said. You're the one whos failing to see facts as they are.

If I may correct you, Alexander got shit done, he changed the world as much as an individual can. But he's very much not what people are talking about when they say "the Greeks". They're talking about a specific three decades of Athenian history. The Greeks didn't achieve much in that time, mostly just killing a lot of other Greeks. Alexander isn't really viewed as a part of the history of western civilization. Which is part of the problem too, the transition from Hellenic polis to Hellenistic kingdoms is a huge part of the evolution of states in the Eastern Mediterranean but the myth doesn't give a shit about that, it's all democracy and the film 300. Sure, all the shit he actually did was in Asia but so was everything back then, Europe hadn't really started yet.


which three are those?

460-430
ModeratorThe angels have the phone box
Nebuchad
Profile Blog Joined December 2012
Switzerland12363 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 08:55:53
July 26 2017 08:34 GMT
#163917
Do we consider that things that are developed in reaction to western culture (i.e. we observe a failing of western culture, we correct it / attempt to correct it) are products of western culture? That's the only way I can make sense of the conservative reading of history in the thread.

Trouble is, if we do I don't see how western culture can be said to be under attack today.
No will to live, no wish to die
Wegandi
Profile Joined March 2011
United States2455 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 08:51:07
July 26 2017 08:48 GMT
#163918
On July 26 2017 15:21 KwarK wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 15:14 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 15:00 Aquanim wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:46 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:40 Sermokala wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:36 xDaunt wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:10 KwarK wrote:
On July 26 2017 14:01 Danglars wrote:
Thread treasure. And I hope he kept his receipt for the whole classics major thing.

You see the thing is, I can actually read the book we're discussing, and indeed I have read it. Whereas xDaunt could only link to a wikipedia article about the book in his own language, and honestly there wasn't much evidence that he had even read that. That's the difference having the education on the subject makes.

Lol, the evolution of natural law in Western culture isn't something that is reduced to a classical Greek text for very obvious reasons. C'mon, Kwark, you're smarter than this. And if you're actually trying to fool people, you're doing an abysmal job at it. No one's fooled by the charade.

If they're so obvious you shouldn't feel any trouble listing the reasons. Thread rule two violation.

Are you shitting me? Is it not obvious to you why a history of the evolution of a concept over the course of 2300+ years of western culture (from Aristotle to modern times) would not show up in an ancient Greek text? Since when did we have to start constantly pointing out the obvious in this thread?

Edit: Christ, I guess that means that people are being fooled by kwark's bullshit.

Considering that (as I understand it) Kwark's point is that these ancient Greek texts are only very tenuously corrected to "Western culture" as it exists today, I'm fairly sure Sermokala hasn't followed what Kwark actually said (which would make your edit a complete non sequitur for the sole purpose of throwing shit at Sermokala and Kwark both), and I'm not at all sure that you did either.

No, I have followed kwark's argument and its movement quite carefully. It went from "there is no link from Christian/Roman/Greek culture to Western culture" to, upon being confronted with unequivocal evidence that there was such a link, to "yeah, but modern people would have come up with this stuff anyway." The bankruptcy there is patent.

Quite the opposite. It went from you claiming that Christian/Roman/Greek culture was the foundation to modern western culture to "well if it wasn't then how come Jefferson read a book and anyway you can't name a better start point for history".

The modern western culture is a modern western development that is as much a product of its own time and place in history as anything can be. I stand by that. Obviously there are links between different peoples at different times but the popular myth, that the Greeks invented democracy and the Olympic games and then gave them to the Romans who invented the Republic and marble and that's how we're here, that's a bedtime story that has somehow infected the public consciousness and just won't leave. Greece does not have a special or unique place in western cultural history. It's simply a part of the broader historical context. 1066 AD is as good as 490 BCE to me.


Yeah, I don't see how you can make that argument, considering that our holiday's come from the romans/Constantine, our calendar is Christian, our laws are very much Roman influenced, we style ourselves on "Democracy" an invention of the Greeks, Liberal studies in college is a hand-down from the Roman and Greeks. They were the genesis and much of what you say is arbitrary starting dates, really isn't. The reason you don't start @ 1066AD is because much of Western society at that point was heavily influenced by Rome and Greece, plus, Byzantine was still around and was a huge influence on Eastern Europe / Russia.

Now, we can talk about whether much of Christian mythology is copied from Babylon and the tales of Gilgamesh, but it's hard to make the argument that Western societies beginnings wasn't Rome and Greece (if you want, instead of society, think Civilization). Now, of course this is cherry-picked, because you know, most people aren't going to point to the Huns or the Celts as western civilization even if for example the Celts were around longer. Which is to say, that Europe before the Romans and Greeks were mostly tribal peoples without much written history (mostly oral). When people say western society they mean Civilization. A pre-requisite of civilization is writing, history, accomplishments, influence, etc.

Having said this, none of this talks about "superiority" or whatever. It's just cause and effect relationships. We have so many hand-me downs from the Romans and Greeks it's silly, which is why making the argument that our current civilization is not heavily influenced by these two giants of western history is remarkably dumb. By the way, I hate it when people on the "right" make that superiority argument. Indo-European culture (Sanskrit/Hinduism/etc.) and history is rich and magnificent, so is Chinese and Japanese, as well as old Civilizations like the Egyptians.

Also, did someone really make the "who taught the Romans/Greeks" jib? That's a rabbit hole. Who taught the teachers? There's something called genesis. No one taught Leibniz or Newton calculus - they discovered it on their own. That's the nature of discovery - there is generally no proceeding event. Who taught the Roman or Greek architects how to build? Where are these other European peoples architectural pieces? You don't hear about them in any historical texts of the time period, nor do any stand to do this day. All you see are stone megaliths that proceeded them. Certainly, the people who built the stone megaliths did not teach the Romans how to build the ampitheatre or the Greeks how to construct the Parthenon.
Thank you bureaucrats for all your hard work, your commitment to public service and public good is essential to the lives of so many. Also, for Pete's sake can we please get some gun control already, no need for hand guns and assault rifles for the public
Aquanim
Profile Joined November 2012
Australia2849 Posts
July 26 2017 09:21 GMT
#163919
On July 26 2017 17:48 Wegandi wrote:Yeah, I don't see how you can make that argument, considering that our holiday's come from the romans/Constantine, our calendar is Christian, our laws are very much Roman influenced, we style ourselves on "Democracy" an invention of the Greeks, Liberal studies in college is a hand-down from the Roman and Greeks. They were the genesis and much of what you say is arbitrary starting dates, really isn't. The reason you don't start @ 1066AD is because much of Western society at that point was heavily influenced by Rome and Greece, plus, Byzantine was still around and was a huge influence on Eastern Europe / Russia.

I would say that the holidays are purely cosmetic, and I suspect you're going to get some disagreement on the concept that "Democracy" as it's known today is an invention of the Greeks. Not sure about your other examples.

I'd venture a guess that Ancient Greece and Rome are frequently used as "starting points" because our current-day records of what preceded them are of much lower quality, not because the people before them had no good ideas.

Having said this, none of this talks about "superiority" or whatever. It's just cause and effect relationships. We have so many hand-me downs from the Romans and Greeks it's silly, which is why making the argument that our current civilization is not heavily influenced by these two giants of western history is remarkably dumb. By the way, I hate it when people on the "right" make that superiority argument. Indo-European culture (Sanskrit/Hinduism/etc.) and history is rich and magnificent, so is Chinese and Japanese, as well as old Civilizations like the Egyptians.

I certainly don't understand how any of this is supposed to have anything to do with the superiority of any culture over any other. This discussion has gone well down the rabbit hole.

Also, did someone really make the "who taught the Romans/Greeks" jib? That's a rabbit hole. Who taught the teachers? There's something called genesis. No one taught Leibniz or Newton calculus - they discovered it on their own. That's the nature of discovery - there is generally no proceeding event. Who taught the Roman or Greek architects how to build? Where are these other European peoples architectural pieces? You don't hear about them in any historical texts of the time period, nor do any stand to do this day. All you see are stone megaliths that proceeded them. Certainly, the people who built the stone megaliths did not teach the Romans how to build the ampitheatre or the Greeks how to construct the Parthenon.

I don't believe anybody here is contending that other people in Europe taught the Roman/Greek architects or philosophers. Other people in Africa on the other hand is an entirely different story. I can't say I'm particularly knowledgable on that area of history, so I'll leave details to somebody who is; suffice it to say that while the Romans and Greeks did make large contributions to the sum total of human knowledge and understanding, that total did not start with them by any means.
Yurie
Profile Blog Joined August 2010
11932 Posts
Last Edited: 2017-07-26 10:38:44
July 26 2017 10:34 GMT
#163920
On July 26 2017 18:21 Aquanim wrote:
Show nested quote +
On July 26 2017 17:48 Wegandi wrote:Yeah, I don't see how you can make that argument, considering that our holiday's come from the romans/Constantine, our calendar is Christian, our laws are very much Roman influenced, we style ourselves on "Democracy" an invention of the Greeks, Liberal studies in college is a hand-down from the Roman and Greeks. They were the genesis and much of what you say is arbitrary starting dates, really isn't. The reason you don't start @ 1066AD is because much of Western society at that point was heavily influenced by Rome and Greece, plus, Byzantine was still around and was a huge influence on Eastern Europe / Russia.

I would say that the holidays are purely cosmetic, and I suspect you're going to get some disagreement on the concept that "Democracy" as it's known today is an invention of the Greeks. Not sure about your other examples.

I'd venture a guess that Ancient Greece and Rome are frequently used as "starting points" because our current-day records of what preceded them are of much lower quality, not because the people before them had no good ideas.

Show nested quote +
Having said this, none of this talks about "superiority" or whatever. It's just cause and effect relationships. We have so many hand-me downs from the Romans and Greeks it's silly, which is why making the argument that our current civilization is not heavily influenced by these two giants of western history is remarkably dumb. By the way, I hate it when people on the "right" make that superiority argument. Indo-European culture (Sanskrit/Hinduism/etc.) and history is rich and magnificent, so is Chinese and Japanese, as well as old Civilizations like the Egyptians.

I certainly don't understand how any of this is supposed to have anything to do with the superiority of any culture over any other. This discussion has gone well down the rabbit hole.

Show nested quote +
Also, did someone really make the "who taught the Romans/Greeks" jib? That's a rabbit hole. Who taught the teachers? There's something called genesis. No one taught Leibniz or Newton calculus - they discovered it on their own. That's the nature of discovery - there is generally no proceeding event. Who taught the Roman or Greek architects how to build? Where are these other European peoples architectural pieces? You don't hear about them in any historical texts of the time period, nor do any stand to do this day. All you see are stone megaliths that proceeded them. Certainly, the people who built the stone megaliths did not teach the Romans how to build the ampitheatre or the Greeks how to construct the Parthenon.

I don't believe anybody here is contending that other people in Europe taught the Roman/Greek architects or philosophers. Other people in Africa on the other hand is an entirely different story. I can't say I'm particularly knowledgable on that area of history, so I'll leave details to somebody who is; suffice it to say that while the Romans and Greeks did make large contributions to the sum total of human knowledge and understanding, that total did not start with them by any means.


Africa had Carthage (from the Phoenicians) and Egypt just to mention two major influencers. Then the Assyrians, Persia, Parthia etc was in Asia minor and the middle east. European civilisations started with the lessons from those and only really rose to prominence after the bronze age collapse.

Greece was slowly gaining prominence even before the collapse but was not part of the original civilisations as far as I know. The centre of what we think of modern western civilisations was the trade around the eastern parts of the mediterranean.
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