EPTSo, if I have
-( P & Q )
can I derive
P
? I seem to recall that the TA said you couldn't but now I'm just confused since there seems to be no way to solve the proof unless I do something that I can't find precedence for in previous proofs.
[H] Logic Question
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Newbistic
China2912 Posts
So, if I have -( P & Q ) can I derive P ? I seem to recall that the TA said you couldn't but now I'm just confused since there seems to be no way to solve the proof unless I do something that I can't find precedence for in previous proofs. | ||
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Mastermind
Canada7096 Posts
Of course what I just did isnt a proof, but it does show you the answer. | ||
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jtan
Sweden5891 Posts
from -(P & Q) you can't | ||
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