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Read the rules in the OP before posting, please.In order to ensure that this thread continues to meet TL standards and follows the proper guidelines, we will be enforcing the rules in the OP more strictly. Be sure to give them a re-read to refresh your memory! The vast majority of you are contributing in a healthy way, keep it up! NOTE: When providing a source, explain why you feel it is relevant and what purpose it adds to the discussion if it's not obvious. Also take note that unsubstantiated tweets/posts meant only to rekindle old arguments can result in a mod action. |
On August 16 2014 07:51 GreenHorizons wrote:Show nested quote +On August 16 2014 07:42 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:29 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:00 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 06:41 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 06:36 Sub40APM wrote:On August 16 2014 05:47 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 05:34 aksfjh wrote:On August 16 2014 05:15 Crushinator wrote:On August 16 2014 04:46 WhiteDog wrote: [quote] So stealing 50 bucks worth of cigars justify an execution without trial ?
[quote] "Human capital" is the new flavor of the decade for economists, after R&D in the 90s. I believe that policies that seeks to reduce poverty and income disparities are the most effective - policies that favor education for the poorests, maybe, but for a big part just simple policies that effectively redistribute wealth from richest to the poorest. I'm not very "educated" about the korean miracle, but I'm pretty sure that kind of policies existed at some point, and played a role. As a teacher myself I believe "education" is for a big part a hoax (a way to class people and permit distinction) - for exemple, experience is really important to be productive and it is always discarded in contemporary societies. Human capital is a lot bigger than education by the way : investing in infrastructures and health services is part of "human capital". The concept in itself is very vague to understand what happen in reality - for exemple if you look at boss' press, one of the major concern of firm in the occidental world is to find good workers, considering that - despite a global increase in "education" - it is harder and harder to find good workers.
In sociology there is a lot of work about relative frustration (like Why men rebel from T. Gurr), from this perspective achieving higher education for the poorest neighborhood, but without objective chance to get to higher positions and income would result not in less violence but more. My response is a bit messy because that's a very broad topic and I don't have the patience to be structured in my answer. I do think education is often overemphasized when it comes to solving social problems and it certainly is not the only answer, but it to me it seems strange to attribute no importance to it at all, especially because it contradicts most emperical evidence. Achieving higher education but no opportunity to make use of it would indeed be quite a tragic situation, but is this really what happens in the real world? On the whole becoming more skilled, and making use of it would result in less frustration, even in the absence of higher wages because people value being competent at a difficult task, and being less replaceable (not a sociologist but I would think this is true, no?). The issue is that many of those that are stuck in poverty and high crime areas can't even get to the higher educational part, despite having all the opportunity required to do so (on paper). Meanwhile, of those that HAVE that education, many of them are struggling to make wages comparable of a high school graduate of 20 years ago. The "specialized" world you talked about earlier doesn't exist for a Starbucks barista with a college degree. Getting better educated may increase US productivity, but that apparently isn't reflected in median US incomes. No, productivity has gone up and so has income. Income gains among the non 1% have stalled since the 80s, while productivity gains continue to climb. Not true, I've made many posts on this. For example: ![[image loading]](https://dl.dropboxusercontent.com/u/72070179/Income%20groups.PNG) The 1% have done much better than average, but incomes have risen over a wide swath of the population. And you think you're graph prove that what we were talking about is wrong ? lol + Show Spoiler +![[image loading]](http://graphics8.nytimes.com/images/2012/04/28/opinion/042812krugman2/042812krugman2-blog480.jpg) You don't see the gap ? http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/04/28/where-the-productivity-went/?_php=true&_type=blogs&_r=0A key to understanding this growth of income inequality—and the disappointing increases in workers’ wages and compensation and middle-class incomes—is understanding the divergence of pay and productivity. Productivity growth has risen substantially over the last few decades but the hourly compensation of the typical worker has seen much more modest growth, especially in the last 10 years or so. The gap between productivity and the compensation growth for the typical worker has been larger in the “lost decade” since the early 2000s than at any point in the post-World War II period. In contrast, productivity and the compensation of the typical worker grew in tandem over the early postwar period until the 1970s. http://www.epi.org/publication/ib330-productivity-vs-compensation You wrote that the bottom 99% have had their income stagnate since 1980. I think the chart I posted refuted that rather well. As for the productivity-compensation gap, much of it is error from using different price deflators for productivity and income or ignoring benefits. The correct chart looks this: Linkstill a gap, but it isn't huge. Also, some of the gap is due to higher depreciation rates and 'imputed' income to homeowners. LOL You're taking a graph that goes back to 1947 to make it seem like the gap is "not huge". Awesome. That's like 50 pts gap (at least) with 1947 at base 100. I think the graphs do a good job of showing the underlying theme regardless of the severity. The majority of people are working harder/being more productive and getting compensated less for their efforts/production, while the top 'earners' are gathering a growing share of the wealth generated by the increased productivity. That's exactly the misinterpretation that I'm trying to prevent. The chart shows that the economy as a whole is more productive and that people are, again as a whole, being compensated more. It also shows that the compensation isn't 100% commensurate with the productivity gain (which may be OK, or not).
What the chart does not show is that any subset of the economy is being unfairly compensated in relation to their productivity. That does not mean all subgroups are fairly compensated in relation to their productivity, only that if that is happening, the graph doesn't show it.
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On August 16 2014 08:05 {CC}StealthBlue wrote:Show nested quote +AUSTIN, Texas (AP) — A grand jury indicted Texas Gov. Rick Perry on Friday for abusing the powers of his office by carrying out a threat to veto funding for state prosecutors investigating public corruption — making the possible 2016 presidential hopeful his state's first indicted governor in nearly a century.
A special prosecutor spent months calling witnesses and presenting evidence that Perry broke the law when he promised publicly to nix $7.5 million over two years for the public integrity unit, which is run by Travis County District Rosemary Lehmberg's office. Several top aides to the Republican governor appeared before grand jurors in Austin, including his deputy chief of staff, legislative director and general counsel. Perry himself wasn't called to testify.
He was indicted by an Austin grand jury on felony counts of abuse of official capacity and coercion of a public servant. Maximum punishment on the first charge is five to 99 years in prison. The second is two to 10 years. Source Holy crap. There goes his chances at winning the GOP nomination.
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United States43611 Posts
On August 16 2014 09:04 aksfjh wrote:Show nested quote +On August 16 2014 08:05 {CC}StealthBlue wrote:AUSTIN, Texas (AP) — A grand jury indicted Texas Gov. Rick Perry on Friday for abusing the powers of his office by carrying out a threat to veto funding for state prosecutors investigating public corruption — making the possible 2016 presidential hopeful his state's first indicted governor in nearly a century.
A special prosecutor spent months calling witnesses and presenting evidence that Perry broke the law when he promised publicly to nix $7.5 million over two years for the public integrity unit, which is run by Travis County District Rosemary Lehmberg's office. Several top aides to the Republican governor appeared before grand jurors in Austin, including his deputy chief of staff, legislative director and general counsel. Perry himself wasn't called to testify.
He was indicted by an Austin grand jury on felony counts of abuse of official capacity and coercion of a public servant. Maximum punishment on the first charge is five to 99 years in prison. The second is two to 10 years. Source Holy crap. There goes his chances at winning the GOP nomination. and yet I can't fault the plan not to fund a drunk driver's public integrity unit
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Too bad for him that the plan was stupid and illegal.
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United States43611 Posts
yeah, obviously he should have tried to work out how to do it with powers he actually possessed
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Russian Federation3631 Posts
"Public Integrity Unit"
that's one way to put it. What's even more worrying to me is not the drunk driving itself but the whole routine of threatening retaliation using her DA position against the cop that stopped her. And she only got a month or so in jail for this!?!??!??
re: Perry indictment - here is the relevant part of the Texas Constitution, which seeing as this is a state indictment should be pretty much the 'final word' on the matter. I've quoted the entire section because ~context~:
Sec. 14. APPROVAL OR DISAPPROVAL OF BILLS; RETURN AND RECONSIDERATION; FAILURE TO RETURN; DISAPPROVAL OF ITEMS OF APPROPRIATION. Every bill which shall have passed both houses of the Legislature shall be presented to the Governor for his approval. If he approve he shall sign it; but if he disapprove it, he shall return it, with his objections, to the House in which it originated, which House shall enter the objections at large upon its journal, and proceed to reconsider it. If after such reconsideration, two-thirds of the members present agree to pass the bill, it shall be sent, with the objections, to the other House, by which likewise it shall be reconsidered; and, if approved by two-thirds of the members of that House, it shall become a law; but in such cases the votes of both Houses shall be determined by yeas and nays, and the names of the members voting for and against the bill shall be entered on the journal of each House respectively. If any bill shall not be returned by the Governor with his objections within ten days (Sundays excepted) after it shall have been presented to him, the same shall be a law, in like manner as if he had signed it, unless the Legislature, by its adjournment, prevent its return, in which case it shall be a law, unless he shall file the same, with his objections, in the office of the Secretary of State and give notice thereof by public proclamation within twenty days after such adjournment. If any bill presented to the Governor contains several items of appropriation he may object to one or more of such items, and approve the other portion of the bill. In such case he shall append to the bill, at the time of signing it, a statement of the items to which he objects, and no item so objected to shall take effect. If the Legislature be in session, he shall transmit to the House in which the bill originated a copy of such statement and the items objected to shall be separately considered. If, on reconsideration, one or more of such items be approved by two-thirds of the members present of each House, the same shall be part of the law, notwithstanding the objections of the Governor. If any such bill, containing several items of appropriation, not having been presented to the Governor ten days (Sundays excepted) prior to adjournment, be in the hands of the Governor at the time of adjournment, he shall have twenty days from such adjournment within which to file objections to any items thereof and make proclamation of the same, and such item or items shall not take effect. I'm no lawyer but to my knowledge this should grant a governor an absolute ability to line-item veto which is what happened in this case.
Also, wasn't this the same DA office who prosecuted Tom Delay and then had the conviction thrown out?
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On August 16 2014 09:55 419 wrote:"Public Integrity Unit" that's one way to put it. What's even more worrying to me is not the drunk driving itself but the whole routine of threatening retaliation using her DA position against the cop that stopped her. And she only got a month or so in jail for this!?!??!?? re: Perry indictment - here is the relevant part of the Texas Constitution, which seeing as this is a state indictment should be pretty much the 'final word' on the matter. I've quoted the entire section because ~context~: Show nested quote +Sec. 14. APPROVAL OR DISAPPROVAL OF BILLS; RETURN AND RECONSIDERATION; FAILURE TO RETURN; DISAPPROVAL OF ITEMS OF APPROPRIATION. Every bill which shall have passed both houses of the Legislature shall be presented to the Governor for his approval. If he approve he shall sign it; but if he disapprove it, he shall return it, with his objections, to the House in which it originated, which House shall enter the objections at large upon its journal, and proceed to reconsider it. If after such reconsideration, two-thirds of the members present agree to pass the bill, it shall be sent, with the objections, to the other House, by which likewise it shall be reconsidered; and, if approved by two-thirds of the members of that House, it shall become a law; but in such cases the votes of both Houses shall be determined by yeas and nays, and the names of the members voting for and against the bill shall be entered on the journal of each House respectively. If any bill shall not be returned by the Governor with his objections within ten days (Sundays excepted) after it shall have been presented to him, the same shall be a law, in like manner as if he had signed it, unless the Legislature, by its adjournment, prevent its return, in which case it shall be a law, unless he shall file the same, with his objections, in the office of the Secretary of State and give notice thereof by public proclamation within twenty days after such adjournment. If any bill presented to the Governor contains several items of appropriation he may object to one or more of such items, and approve the other portion of the bill. In such case he shall append to the bill, at the time of signing it, a statement of the items to which he objects, and no item so objected to shall take effect. If the Legislature be in session, he shall transmit to the House in which the bill originated a copy of such statement and the items objected to shall be separately considered. If, on reconsideration, one or more of such items be approved by two-thirds of the members present of each House, the same shall be part of the law, notwithstanding the objections of the Governor. If any such bill, containing several items of appropriation, not having been presented to the Governor ten days (Sundays excepted) prior to adjournment, be in the hands of the Governor at the time of adjournment, he shall have twenty days from such adjournment within which to file objections to any items thereof and make proclamation of the same, and such item or items shall not take effect. I'm no lawyer but to my knowledge this should grant a governor an absolute ability to line-item veto which is what happened in this case. Also, wasn't this the same DA office who prosecuted Tom Delay and then had the conviction thrown out? He has the power to do so, but doing so as a way to explicitly exact punishment on somebody is (likely) against the law. Same thing with the whole New Jersey bridge closure thing.
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Yeah, my understanding is that if he had just kept his mouth shut and vetoed that item, it would have been fine.
Coming out and saying he's going to veto it unless she resigns was the illegal action.
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On August 16 2014 08:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:Show nested quote +On August 16 2014 07:51 GreenHorizons wrote:On August 16 2014 07:42 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:29 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:00 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 06:41 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 06:36 Sub40APM wrote:On August 16 2014 05:47 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 05:34 aksfjh wrote:On August 16 2014 05:15 Crushinator wrote: [quote]
I do think education is often overemphasized when it comes to solving social problems and it certainly is not the only answer, but it to me it seems strange to attribute no importance to it at all, especially because it contradicts most emperical evidence. Achieving higher education but no opportunity to make use of it would indeed be quite a tragic situation, but is this really what happens in the real world? On the whole becoming more skilled, and making use of it would result in less frustration, even in the absence of higher wages because people value being competent at a difficult task, and being less replaceable (not a sociologist but I would think this is true, no?). The issue is that many of those that are stuck in poverty and high crime areas can't even get to the higher educational part, despite having all the opportunity required to do so (on paper). Meanwhile, of those that HAVE that education, many of them are struggling to make wages comparable of a high school graduate of 20 years ago. The "specialized" world you talked about earlier doesn't exist for a Starbucks barista with a college degree. Getting better educated may increase US productivity, but that apparently isn't reflected in median US incomes. No, productivity has gone up and so has income. Income gains among the non 1% have stalled since the 80s, while productivity gains continue to climb. Not true, I've made many posts on this. For example: ![[image loading]](https://dl.dropboxusercontent.com/u/72070179/Income%20groups.PNG) The 1% have done much better than average, but incomes have risen over a wide swath of the population. And you think you're graph prove that what we were talking about is wrong ? lol + Show Spoiler +![[image loading]](http://graphics8.nytimes.com/images/2012/04/28/opinion/042812krugman2/042812krugman2-blog480.jpg) You don't see the gap ? http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/04/28/where-the-productivity-went/?_php=true&_type=blogs&_r=0A key to understanding this growth of income inequality—and the disappointing increases in workers’ wages and compensation and middle-class incomes—is understanding the divergence of pay and productivity. Productivity growth has risen substantially over the last few decades but the hourly compensation of the typical worker has seen much more modest growth, especially in the last 10 years or so. The gap between productivity and the compensation growth for the typical worker has been larger in the “lost decade” since the early 2000s than at any point in the post-World War II period. In contrast, productivity and the compensation of the typical worker grew in tandem over the early postwar period until the 1970s. http://www.epi.org/publication/ib330-productivity-vs-compensation You wrote that the bottom 99% have had their income stagnate since 1980. I think the chart I posted refuted that rather well. As for the productivity-compensation gap, much of it is error from using different price deflators for productivity and income or ignoring benefits. The correct chart looks this: Linkstill a gap, but it isn't huge. Also, some of the gap is due to higher depreciation rates and 'imputed' income to homeowners. LOL You're taking a graph that goes back to 1947 to make it seem like the gap is "not huge". Awesome. That's like 50 pts gap (at least) with 1947 at base 100. I think the graphs do a good job of showing the underlying theme regardless of the severity. The majority of people are working harder/being more productive and getting compensated less for their efforts/production, while the top 'earners' are gathering a growing share of the wealth generated by the increased productivity. That's exactly the misinterpretation that I'm trying to prevent. The chart shows that the economy as a whole is more productive and that people are, again as a whole, being compensated more. It also shows that the compensation isn't 100% commensurate with the productivity gain (which may be OK, or not). What the chart does not show is that any subset of the economy is being unfairly compensated in relation to their productivity. That does not mean all subgroups are fairly compensated in relation to their productivity, only that if that is happening, the graph doesn't show it.
Instead of quoting that lame Cleveland Fed website you should quote the real source of your massaged data, the Heritage Foundation, so that WhiteDog can respond properly.
http://www.heritage.org/research/reports/2013/07/productivity-and-compensation-growing-together
So the differences in the graph include things like benefits and "paid leave" that weren't figured into the more popularly used wages vs productivity graph. It's unclear what paid leave means and why it wouldn't be included in wages, since you still get wages, you just happen to not show up at work. My inclination is to say that the massaging Heritage does by including benefits ignores overall increased spending on healthcare that is canceled out by increased benefits, factoring in bonuses somehow, despite the fact that the overwhelming majority of the workforce has no access to appreciable bonuses, and favorable inflation measures that diminish the apparent difference but ignore the differences in inflation's effects on those with less income and wealth. Like instead of including benefits as just a lump sum form of "compensation" why are they not indexed and compared to the cost of benefits in the 70s? It seems like benefits are just being included flatly as "compensation" without being adjusted for "benefit inflation." The Lawrence Mishel paper seems more correct (http://www.csls.ca/ipm/23/IPM-23-Mishel-Gee.pdf). It seems odd to argue, as Heritage does, that workers in healthcare are stuck in a "low productivity" sector and dragging down their own compensation because they lack skills to move into "higher productivity" fields, without taking into account what might be "benefits inflation" in that very field.
![[image loading]](http://www.heritage.org/~/media/images/reports/2013/07/bg%202825/bgproductivityandcompensationchart6825.ashx)
I also find it odd that Heritage thinks this is a compelling argument:
Even this remaining 23 percent gap is exaggerated, for two reasons. The government productivity is mismeasured and overstated, because BLS is doing an incomplete job accounting for the prices of imported goods that have been used in production. Consider a widget factory that starts using cheaper inputs from China. The BLS does not capture the full cost-savings to employers. It appears to BLS that factories are producing more widgets at lower cost. This looks like increased productivity. However, the gains are coming from trade and the lower price foreign goods, not worker productivity. This may account for about half of the remaining 23 point gap you see in Figure 12.
It's as if being able to pay Chinese workers far less than American workers does not impact worker productivity. Yes, the productivity is not American productivity, but to pretend that this isn't a problem in itself, and to pretend that it doesn't specifically affect American workers, seems like economic accounting sleight of hand.
The Heritage Foundation's paper:
Conclusion
Many pundits and politicians contend that employees’ pay has not kept up with their productivity and that this phenomenon pre-dates the recent deep recession and sluggish recovery. They argue that workers are more productive than ever before, but that employers systematically underpay them. Fortunately, these claims are false. They rest on mistaken comparisons of economic data. Looking at total compensation data—including benefits—from the same source as the productivity figures and using consistent measures of inflation eliminate over three-quarters of the apparent gap between pay and productivity. Factors artificially inflating productivity—like greater depreciation and measurement errors—account for most of the remaining difference. Workers’ compensation has closely tracked their productivity over the past generation. Policymakers should not worry about closing this nonexistent gap. Instead they should look for ways to improve the skills of less-productive workers.
We can compare this to the Economic Policy Institute's response, which includes this footnote:
Just as one example, Heritage assumes that the gap between compensation and productivity caused by difference in the price deflators used to calculate productivity of firms and used to calculate inflation-adjusted compensation should be seen simply as evidence that consumer price inflation is overstated. There’s an equally compelling interpretation (pdf) that this is instead evidence that we’re overstating the productivity of firms that can be translated into consumption growth, and hence that the last generation has been characterized not just by growing inequality, but by even worse overall economic performance than is commonly thought.
and which generally criticizes the Heritage report for using average rather than median compensation figures.
![[image loading]](http://s1.epi.org/files/2013//wp-figure-2.jpg) http://www.epi.org/blog/compensationproductivity-link-broken-vast/#_note1
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On August 16 2014 09:55 419 wrote:
Also, wasn't this the same DA office who prosecuted Tom Delay and then had the conviction thrown out? two republican judges said the republican majority leader was not guilt...
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On August 16 2014 16:45 Sub40APM wrote:Show nested quote +On August 16 2014 09:55 419 wrote:
Also, wasn't this the same DA office who prosecuted Tom Delay and then had the conviction thrown out? two republican judges said the republican majority leader was not guilt...
You could say he was cleared by a jury of his peers
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Three quarters of Americans do not feel confident that their children will have a better life than they do in a new NBC-Wall Street Journal poll, the lowest number ever measured in the survey and a stunning indication of the historic uncertainty and pessimism coursing through the public. Fully 76 percent of respondents expressed a lack of confidence that the next generation will have it better than the last one, a major jump from the last time NBC-WSJ asked the question in May 2012 when 63 percent said they lacked confidence that their kids would have it better than they do. The trend line on the question over the past few decades is even more telling — and troubling. ![[image loading]](http://img.washingtonpost.com/blogs/the-fix/files/2014/08/Screen-Shot-2014-08-06-at-11.16.44-AM.png) What the data above suggests is an erosion of confidence that things will keep getting better for future generations that began in late 1990 and has continued — with a brief interruption in the wake of the Sept. 11, 2001, terrorist attacks and rallying effect it occasioned — all the way to the present. That number goes hand in hand with the next question asked by the NBC-WSJ pollsters. People were asked which of these two statements came closer to their view: 1) "The United States is a country where anyone, regardless of their background, can work hard, succeed and be comfortable financially" or 2) "The widening gap between the incomes of the wealthy and everyone else is undermining the idea that every American has the opportunity to move up to a better standard of living." A majority — 54 percent — chose the second statement while 44 percent chose the first. That is, a majority of people believe that the chasm between rich and poor is making it harder and harder to achieve the American dream.
Source
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On August 16 2014 08:43 JonnyBNoHo wrote:Show nested quote +On August 16 2014 08:17 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 08:11 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 08:01 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:58 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:52 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:47 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:46 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:44 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:42 WhiteDog wrote: [quote] LOL You're taking a graph that goes back to 1947 to make it seem like the gap is "not huge". Awesome. No, that's not what I'm doing at all. Compare the two: + Show Spoiler +Edit: really, you should know better. What do you want to prove ? My graph is in real term too you know. Did you read my post?? Where do you want to go ? There's a 50 pts gap, it's huge, in your graph. Secondary my graph is about non supervisionary workers, because everybody knows there is an inflation in higher wage, especially in the US - your graph being an "average" of all "compensation" doesn't take that into account. ?? I didn't deny a gap. You're either having a hard time reading my posts or you aren't reading them at all. I used the phrase "small" because the gap is much smaller than in your graphs. Subjectively, I think it is small anyways as it only represents a few percent of GDP. Secondly, it is misleading to post productivity with non-supervisory median wages. The link between productivity and income is with total compensation for all workers, not wages for non-supervisory. Additionally, the link needs to use the same deflators for them to be correct. You remember that in the same post I also posted another graph with 4 curve and each different scenario, each showing a gap ? You just quoted the one that you wanted to criticise right ? And can you tell me what's a big gap for you ? 50 pts is "small", so what's big ? 100 ? How can you judge that the gap is small or big ? Both your graphs deserve criticism for the same reasons. As for calling the gap small, did you not notice where I said "subjectively"?? And it's not misleading because you can't evaluate the productivity of non supervisionary workers alone since productivity per group or per anything doesn't exist since production is a social activity you know. Your logic is completely backwards here. If you can't measure the productivity of non-supervisory workers alone than you shouldn't be posting their compensation along with a graph of productivity. edit: You can talk to no end about the statistics and everything else (because all statistical artifacts are rather rash picture of reality), and then there is the fact, there is a gap - bigger than anything since 1950 so I will use the term "huge" gap because I want to, just like you use to term "small" because you want to - and a stagnation of the bottom 25 % wages since 20 years. Bottom 25% of income has risen. I wouldn't call that stagnation, unless you want to look at simple gross wages. I don't think that's a particularly meaningful stat though. 1 - I subjectively consider that all men are pink. 2 - The logic is not backwards, it's just that there are no statistical artefact to specifically evaluate what we are talking about so we purposefully use a deficient one but better than all compensation of all workers. It's often the case in social science : using imperfect data. 3 - I specifically said wage. I consider it very meaningful for political reasons. 1 - You wrote: "How can you judge that the gap is small or big ?" Exactly. Calling it big or small is subjective, unless we can agree on some metric for determining the 'bigness' of the gap. 2 - Sure, using imperfect data can sometimes be OK but you should be upfront about it. Productivity and median non-supervisory wages aren't supposed to be linked. Posting a graph of them together as if they were supposed to be linked (as total productivity and total compensation are) seems misleading to me, if not downright wrong. 3 - Politically it is meaningful, especially when it comes to quick talking points, but from an economic standpoint not so much. Income matters much more than a subset of income. 1 - You put aside the fact that my assumption that the gap is "huge" is based in historical data, and not on my subjectivity alone : it is the biggest gap since WWII. 2 - Your data on compensation are also imperfect. It's "on average", in a broad and statistically homogeneous population, with no distinction between top and bottom income, and "real" value like inflation is an homogeneous phenomena that touch every income group in the same way. Yet I'm not nitpicking since I consider imperfect data as a norm in social science. 3 - It is even meaningful economically, since wage are supposed to be set at marginal productivity in economical theory. This theorical stand is not only an hypothesis, it is and has been the ground justification for capitalism for most economists : it is a question of merit since your wage is relative to your productivity. A gap, small, big or whatever, is yet another clue to point that the theory of the pure and perfect market is false. It's an economical, theorical, moral and political problem, and you're putting it aside for your own conveniance.
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On August 16 2014 14:37 IgnE wrote:Show nested quote +On August 16 2014 08:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:51 GreenHorizons wrote:On August 16 2014 07:42 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:29 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:00 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 06:41 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 06:36 Sub40APM wrote:On August 16 2014 05:47 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 05:34 aksfjh wrote: [quote] The issue is that many of those that are stuck in poverty and high crime areas can't even get to the higher educational part, despite having all the opportunity required to do so (on paper). Meanwhile, of those that HAVE that education, many of them are struggling to make wages comparable of a high school graduate of 20 years ago. The "specialized" world you talked about earlier doesn't exist for a Starbucks barista with a college degree. Getting better educated may increase US productivity, but that apparently isn't reflected in median US incomes. No, productivity has gone up and so has income. Income gains among the non 1% have stalled since the 80s, while productivity gains continue to climb. Not true, I've made many posts on this. For example: ![[image loading]](https://dl.dropboxusercontent.com/u/72070179/Income%20groups.PNG) The 1% have done much better than average, but incomes have risen over a wide swath of the population. And you think you're graph prove that what we were talking about is wrong ? lol + Show Spoiler +![[image loading]](http://graphics8.nytimes.com/images/2012/04/28/opinion/042812krugman2/042812krugman2-blog480.jpg) You don't see the gap ? http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/04/28/where-the-productivity-went/?_php=true&_type=blogs&_r=0A key to understanding this growth of income inequality—and the disappointing increases in workers’ wages and compensation and middle-class incomes—is understanding the divergence of pay and productivity. Productivity growth has risen substantially over the last few decades but the hourly compensation of the typical worker has seen much more modest growth, especially in the last 10 years or so. The gap between productivity and the compensation growth for the typical worker has been larger in the “lost decade” since the early 2000s than at any point in the post-World War II period. In contrast, productivity and the compensation of the typical worker grew in tandem over the early postwar period until the 1970s. http://www.epi.org/publication/ib330-productivity-vs-compensation You wrote that the bottom 99% have had their income stagnate since 1980. I think the chart I posted refuted that rather well. As for the productivity-compensation gap, much of it is error from using different price deflators for productivity and income or ignoring benefits. The correct chart looks this: Linkstill a gap, but it isn't huge. Also, some of the gap is due to higher depreciation rates and 'imputed' income to homeowners. LOL You're taking a graph that goes back to 1947 to make it seem like the gap is "not huge". Awesome. That's like 50 pts gap (at least) with 1947 at base 100. I think the graphs do a good job of showing the underlying theme regardless of the severity. The majority of people are working harder/being more productive and getting compensated less for their efforts/production, while the top 'earners' are gathering a growing share of the wealth generated by the increased productivity. That's exactly the misinterpretation that I'm trying to prevent. The chart shows that the economy as a whole is more productive and that people are, again as a whole, being compensated more. It also shows that the compensation isn't 100% commensurate with the productivity gain (which may be OK, or not). What the chart does not show is that any subset of the economy is being unfairly compensated in relation to their productivity. That does not mean all subgroups are fairly compensated in relation to their productivity, only that if that is happening, the graph doesn't show it. Instead of quoting that lame Cleveland Fed website you should quote the real source of your massaged data, the Heritage Foundation, so that WhiteDog can respond properly. http://www.heritage.org/research/reports/2013/07/productivity-and-compensation-growing-togetherSo the differences in the graph include things like benefits and "paid leave" that weren't figured into the more popularly used wages vs productivity graph. It's unclear what paid leave means and why it wouldn't be included in wages, since you still get wages, you just happen to not show up at work. My inclination is to say that the massaging Heritage does by including benefits ignores overall increased spending on healthcare that is canceled out by increased benefits, factoring in bonuses somehow, despite the fact that the overwhelming majority of the workforce has no access to appreciable bonuses, and favorable inflation measures that diminish the apparent difference but ignore the differences in inflation's effects on those with less income and wealth. Like instead of including benefits as just a lump sum form of "compensation" why are they not indexed and compared to the cost of benefits in the 70s? It seems like benefits are just being included flatly as "compensation" without being adjusted for "benefit inflation." The Lawrence Mishel paper seems more correct ( http://www.csls.ca/ipm/23/IPM-23-Mishel-Gee.pdf). It seems odd to argue, as Heritage does, that workers in healthcare are stuck in a "low productivity" sector and dragging down their own compensation because they lack skills to move into "higher productivity" fields, without taking into account what might be "benefits inflation" in that very field. + Show Spoiler +![[image loading]](http://www.heritage.org/~/media/images/reports/2013/07/bg%202825/bgproductivityandcompensationchart6825.ashx) I also find it odd that Heritage thinks this is a compelling argument: Even this remaining 23 percent gap is exaggerated, for two reasons. The government productivity is mismeasured and overstated, because BLS is doing an incomplete job accounting for the prices of imported goods that have been used in production. Consider a widget factory that starts using cheaper inputs from China. The BLS does not capture the full cost-savings to employers. It appears to BLS that factories are producing more widgets at lower cost. This looks like increased productivity. However, the gains are coming from trade and the lower price foreign goods, not worker productivity. This may account for about half of the remaining 23 point gap you see in Figure 12. It's as if being able to pay Chinese workers far less than American workers does not impact worker productivity. Yes, the productivity is not American productivity, but to pretend that this isn't a problem in itself, and to pretend that it doesn't specifically affect American workers, seems like economic accounting sleight of hand. The Heritage Foundation's paper: Conclusion
Many pundits and politicians contend that employees’ pay has not kept up with their productivity and that this phenomenon pre-dates the recent deep recession and sluggish recovery. They argue that workers are more productive than ever before, but that employers systematically underpay them. Fortunately, these claims are false. They rest on mistaken comparisons of economic data. Looking at total compensation data—including benefits—from the same source as the productivity figures and using consistent measures of inflation eliminate over three-quarters of the apparent gap between pay and productivity. Factors artificially inflating productivity—like greater depreciation and measurement errors—account for most of the remaining difference. Workers’ compensation has closely tracked their productivity over the past generation. Policymakers should not worry about closing this nonexistent gap. Instead they should look for ways to improve the skills of less-productive workers. We can compare this to the Economic Policy Institute's response, which includes this footnote: Just as one example, Heritage assumes that the gap between compensation and productivity caused by difference in the price deflators used to calculate productivity of firms and used to calculate inflation-adjusted compensation should be seen simply as evidence that consumer price inflation is overstated. There’s an equally compelling interpretation (pdf) that this is instead evidence that we’re overstating the productivity of firms that can be translated into consumption growth, and hence that the last generation has been characterized not just by growing inequality, but by even worse overall economic performance than is commonly thought. and which generally criticizes the Heritage report for using average rather than median compensation figures. http://www.epi.org/blog/compensationproductivity-link-broken-vast/#_note1 Average is correct, median is incorrect. Compensation is correct, wages is incorrect. You don't need a special price index for benefits when you use a price index for the economy as a whole. Sorry, but everything you posted here is wrong.
If you want me to break down every part here, ask and I will.
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On August 17 2014 01:40 WhiteDog wrote:Show nested quote +On August 16 2014 08:43 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 08:17 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 08:11 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 08:01 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:58 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:52 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:47 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:46 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:44 JonnyBNoHo wrote:[quote] No, that's not what I'm doing at all. Compare the two: + Show Spoiler +Edit: really, you should know better. What do you want to prove ? My graph is in real term too you know. Did you read my post?? Where do you want to go ? There's a 50 pts gap, it's huge, in your graph. Secondary my graph is about non supervisionary workers, because everybody knows there is an inflation in higher wage, especially in the US - your graph being an "average" of all "compensation" doesn't take that into account. ?? I didn't deny a gap. You're either having a hard time reading my posts or you aren't reading them at all. I used the phrase "small" because the gap is much smaller than in your graphs. Subjectively, I think it is small anyways as it only represents a few percent of GDP. Secondly, it is misleading to post productivity with non-supervisory median wages. The link between productivity and income is with total compensation for all workers, not wages for non-supervisory. Additionally, the link needs to use the same deflators for them to be correct. You remember that in the same post I also posted another graph with 4 curve and each different scenario, each showing a gap ? You just quoted the one that you wanted to criticise right ? And can you tell me what's a big gap for you ? 50 pts is "small", so what's big ? 100 ? How can you judge that the gap is small or big ? Both your graphs deserve criticism for the same reasons. As for calling the gap small, did you not notice where I said "subjectively"?? And it's not misleading because you can't evaluate the productivity of non supervisionary workers alone since productivity per group or per anything doesn't exist since production is a social activity you know. Your logic is completely backwards here. If you can't measure the productivity of non-supervisory workers alone than you shouldn't be posting their compensation along with a graph of productivity. edit: You can talk to no end about the statistics and everything else (because all statistical artifacts are rather rash picture of reality), and then there is the fact, there is a gap - bigger than anything since 1950 so I will use the term "huge" gap because I want to, just like you use to term "small" because you want to - and a stagnation of the bottom 25 % wages since 20 years. Bottom 25% of income has risen. I wouldn't call that stagnation, unless you want to look at simple gross wages. I don't think that's a particularly meaningful stat though. 1 - I subjectively consider that all men are pink. 2 - The logic is not backwards, it's just that there are no statistical artefact to specifically evaluate what we are talking about so we purposefully use a deficient one but better than all compensation of all workers. It's often the case in social science : using imperfect data. 3 - I specifically said wage. I consider it very meaningful for political reasons. 1 - You wrote: "How can you judge that the gap is small or big ?" Exactly. Calling it big or small is subjective, unless we can agree on some metric for determining the 'bigness' of the gap. 2 - Sure, using imperfect data can sometimes be OK but you should be upfront about it. Productivity and median non-supervisory wages aren't supposed to be linked. Posting a graph of them together as if they were supposed to be linked (as total productivity and total compensation are) seems misleading to me, if not downright wrong. 3 - Politically it is meaningful, especially when it comes to quick talking points, but from an economic standpoint not so much. Income matters much more than a subset of income. 1 - You put aside the fact that my assumption that the gap is "huge" is based in historical data, and not on my subjectivity alone : it is the biggest gap since WWII. 2 - Your data on compensation are also imperfect. It's "on average", in a broad and statistically homogeneous population, with no distinction between top and bottom income, and "real" value like inflation is an homogeneous phenomena that touch every income group in the same way. Yet I'm not nitpicking since I consider imperfect data as a norm in social science. 3 - It is even meaningful economically, since wage are supposed to be set at marginal productivity in economical theory. This theorical stand is not only an hypothesis, it is and has been the ground justification for capitalism for most economists : it is a question of merit since your wage is relative to your productivity. A gap, small, big or whatever, is yet another clue to point that the theory of the pure and perfect market is false. It's an economical, theorical, moral and political problem, and you're putting it aside for your own conveniance. 1 - You put aside the fact that my gap was small compared to your gap. This is a really petty discussion point. Put this one aside? 2 - It's not so imperfect in the context that it's used. Again, the link is between productivity and compensation and those are the two lines used. Really, that should be the end of the story here. If you want to bring up inequality there exists appropriate data for that. What you shouldn't do is improperly display a productivity-compensation chart just to make it easier to tell your story. 3- Again, you should be talking about compensation here, not just wages. Did you want to talk about why the gap exists, because we can do that! I can show you a breakdown of all the relevant components that contributed to gap. It's pretty benign. Two big ones (as I said a while back) are faster depreciation and imputed rent to homeowners. A third big one is an end to a secular decline in corporate profits around 1980 - which had to happen at some point since profits aren't sustainable at zero.
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On August 17 2014 02:07 JonnyBNoHo wrote:Show nested quote +On August 17 2014 01:40 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 08:43 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 08:17 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 08:11 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 08:01 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:58 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:52 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:47 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:46 WhiteDog wrote: [quote] What do you want to prove ? My graph is in real term too you know. Did you read my post?? Where do you want to go ? There's a 50 pts gap, it's huge, in your graph. Secondary my graph is about non supervisionary workers, because everybody knows there is an inflation in higher wage, especially in the US - your graph being an "average" of all "compensation" doesn't take that into account. ?? I didn't deny a gap. You're either having a hard time reading my posts or you aren't reading them at all. I used the phrase "small" because the gap is much smaller than in your graphs. Subjectively, I think it is small anyways as it only represents a few percent of GDP. Secondly, it is misleading to post productivity with non-supervisory median wages. The link between productivity and income is with total compensation for all workers, not wages for non-supervisory. Additionally, the link needs to use the same deflators for them to be correct. You remember that in the same post I also posted another graph with 4 curve and each different scenario, each showing a gap ? You just quoted the one that you wanted to criticise right ? And can you tell me what's a big gap for you ? 50 pts is "small", so what's big ? 100 ? How can you judge that the gap is small or big ? Both your graphs deserve criticism for the same reasons. As for calling the gap small, did you not notice where I said "subjectively"?? And it's not misleading because you can't evaluate the productivity of non supervisionary workers alone since productivity per group or per anything doesn't exist since production is a social activity you know. Your logic is completely backwards here. If you can't measure the productivity of non-supervisory workers alone than you shouldn't be posting their compensation along with a graph of productivity. edit: You can talk to no end about the statistics and everything else (because all statistical artifacts are rather rash picture of reality), and then there is the fact, there is a gap - bigger than anything since 1950 so I will use the term "huge" gap because I want to, just like you use to term "small" because you want to - and a stagnation of the bottom 25 % wages since 20 years. Bottom 25% of income has risen. I wouldn't call that stagnation, unless you want to look at simple gross wages. I don't think that's a particularly meaningful stat though. 1 - I subjectively consider that all men are pink. 2 - The logic is not backwards, it's just that there are no statistical artefact to specifically evaluate what we are talking about so we purposefully use a deficient one but better than all compensation of all workers. It's often the case in social science : using imperfect data. 3 - I specifically said wage. I consider it very meaningful for political reasons. 1 - You wrote: "How can you judge that the gap is small or big ?" Exactly. Calling it big or small is subjective, unless we can agree on some metric for determining the 'bigness' of the gap. 2 - Sure, using imperfect data can sometimes be OK but you should be upfront about it. Productivity and median non-supervisory wages aren't supposed to be linked. Posting a graph of them together as if they were supposed to be linked (as total productivity and total compensation are) seems misleading to me, if not downright wrong. 3 - Politically it is meaningful, especially when it comes to quick talking points, but from an economic standpoint not so much. Income matters much more than a subset of income. 1 - You put aside the fact that my assumption that the gap is "huge" is based in historical data, and not on my subjectivity alone : it is the biggest gap since WWII. 2 - Your data on compensation are also imperfect. It's "on average", in a broad and statistically homogeneous population, with no distinction between top and bottom income, and "real" value like inflation is an homogeneous phenomena that touch every income group in the same way. Yet I'm not nitpicking since I consider imperfect data as a norm in social science. 3 - It is even meaningful economically, since wage are supposed to be set at marginal productivity in economical theory. This theorical stand is not only an hypothesis, it is and has been the ground justification for capitalism for most economists : it is a question of merit since your wage is relative to your productivity. A gap, small, big or whatever, is yet another clue to point that the theory of the pure and perfect market is false. It's an economical, theorical, moral and political problem, and you're putting it aside for your own conveniance. 1 - You put aside the fact that my gap was small compared to your gap. This is a really petty discussion point. Put this one aside? 2 - It's not so imperfect in the context that it's used. Again, the link is between productivity and compensation and those are the two lines used. Really, that should be the end of the story here. If you want to bring up inequality there exists appropriate data for that. What you shouldn't do is improperly display a productivity-compensation chart just to make it easier to tell your story. 3- Again, you should be talking about compensation here, not just wages. Did you want to talk about why the gap exists, because we can do that! I can show you a breakdown of all the relevant components that contributed to gap. It's pretty benign. Two big ones (as I said a while back) are faster depreciation and imputed rent to homeowners. A third big one is an end to a secular decline in corporate profits around 1980 - which had to happen at some point since profits aren't sustainable at zero. 1 - It's smaller than mine, but not "small". 2 - It is imperfect. The link that we were discussing about is between productivity and compensation for the bottom "99 %". You're talking about you for the second part of your comment, right ? 3 - No. Just because you read a conservative piece of econ doesn't make it true. The core problem is that the distribution of income is a political matter, and not an economic one. The simple fact that you go from wage to compensation prove that in itself - because "compensations" are the result of policies right ?
On August 17 2014 01:56 JonnyBNoHo wrote:Show nested quote +On August 16 2014 14:37 IgnE wrote:On August 16 2014 08:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:51 GreenHorizons wrote:On August 16 2014 07:42 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:29 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:00 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 06:41 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 06:36 Sub40APM wrote:On August 16 2014 05:47 JonnyBNoHo wrote: [quote] No, productivity has gone up and so has income.
Income gains among the non 1% have stalled since the 80s, while productivity gains continue to climb. Not true, I've made many posts on this. For example: ![[image loading]](https://dl.dropboxusercontent.com/u/72070179/Income%20groups.PNG) The 1% have done much better than average, but incomes have risen over a wide swath of the population. And you think you're graph prove that what we were talking about is wrong ? lol + Show Spoiler +![[image loading]](http://graphics8.nytimes.com/images/2012/04/28/opinion/042812krugman2/042812krugman2-blog480.jpg) You don't see the gap ? http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/04/28/where-the-productivity-went/?_php=true&_type=blogs&_r=0A key to understanding this growth of income inequality—and the disappointing increases in workers’ wages and compensation and middle-class incomes—is understanding the divergence of pay and productivity. Productivity growth has risen substantially over the last few decades but the hourly compensation of the typical worker has seen much more modest growth, especially in the last 10 years or so. The gap between productivity and the compensation growth for the typical worker has been larger in the “lost decade” since the early 2000s than at any point in the post-World War II period. In contrast, productivity and the compensation of the typical worker grew in tandem over the early postwar period until the 1970s. http://www.epi.org/publication/ib330-productivity-vs-compensation You wrote that the bottom 99% have had their income stagnate since 1980. I think the chart I posted refuted that rather well. As for the productivity-compensation gap, much of it is error from using different price deflators for productivity and income or ignoring benefits. The correct chart looks this: Linkstill a gap, but it isn't huge. Also, some of the gap is due to higher depreciation rates and 'imputed' income to homeowners. LOL You're taking a graph that goes back to 1947 to make it seem like the gap is "not huge". Awesome. That's like 50 pts gap (at least) with 1947 at base 100. I think the graphs do a good job of showing the underlying theme regardless of the severity. The majority of people are working harder/being more productive and getting compensated less for their efforts/production, while the top 'earners' are gathering a growing share of the wealth generated by the increased productivity. That's exactly the misinterpretation that I'm trying to prevent. The chart shows that the economy as a whole is more productive and that people are, again as a whole, being compensated more. It also shows that the compensation isn't 100% commensurate with the productivity gain (which may be OK, or not). What the chart does not show is that any subset of the economy is being unfairly compensated in relation to their productivity. That does not mean all subgroups are fairly compensated in relation to their productivity, only that if that is happening, the graph doesn't show it. Instead of quoting that lame Cleveland Fed website you should quote the real source of your massaged data, the Heritage Foundation, so that WhiteDog can respond properly. http://www.heritage.org/research/reports/2013/07/productivity-and-compensation-growing-togetherSo the differences in the graph include things like benefits and "paid leave" that weren't figured into the more popularly used wages vs productivity graph. It's unclear what paid leave means and why it wouldn't be included in wages, since you still get wages, you just happen to not show up at work. My inclination is to say that the massaging Heritage does by including benefits ignores overall increased spending on healthcare that is canceled out by increased benefits, factoring in bonuses somehow, despite the fact that the overwhelming majority of the workforce has no access to appreciable bonuses, and favorable inflation measures that diminish the apparent difference but ignore the differences in inflation's effects on those with less income and wealth. Like instead of including benefits as just a lump sum form of "compensation" why are they not indexed and compared to the cost of benefits in the 70s? It seems like benefits are just being included flatly as "compensation" without being adjusted for "benefit inflation." The Lawrence Mishel paper seems more correct ( http://www.csls.ca/ipm/23/IPM-23-Mishel-Gee.pdf). It seems odd to argue, as Heritage does, that workers in healthcare are stuck in a "low productivity" sector and dragging down their own compensation because they lack skills to move into "higher productivity" fields, without taking into account what might be "benefits inflation" in that very field. + Show Spoiler +![[image loading]](http://www.heritage.org/~/media/images/reports/2013/07/bg%202825/bgproductivityandcompensationchart6825.ashx) I also find it odd that Heritage thinks this is a compelling argument: Even this remaining 23 percent gap is exaggerated, for two reasons. The government productivity is mismeasured and overstated, because BLS is doing an incomplete job accounting for the prices of imported goods that have been used in production. Consider a widget factory that starts using cheaper inputs from China. The BLS does not capture the full cost-savings to employers. It appears to BLS that factories are producing more widgets at lower cost. This looks like increased productivity. However, the gains are coming from trade and the lower price foreign goods, not worker productivity. This may account for about half of the remaining 23 point gap you see in Figure 12. It's as if being able to pay Chinese workers far less than American workers does not impact worker productivity. Yes, the productivity is not American productivity, but to pretend that this isn't a problem in itself, and to pretend that it doesn't specifically affect American workers, seems like economic accounting sleight of hand. The Heritage Foundation's paper: Conclusion
Many pundits and politicians contend that employees’ pay has not kept up with their productivity and that this phenomenon pre-dates the recent deep recession and sluggish recovery. They argue that workers are more productive than ever before, but that employers systematically underpay them. Fortunately, these claims are false. They rest on mistaken comparisons of economic data. Looking at total compensation data—including benefits—from the same source as the productivity figures and using consistent measures of inflation eliminate over three-quarters of the apparent gap between pay and productivity. Factors artificially inflating productivity—like greater depreciation and measurement errors—account for most of the remaining difference. Workers’ compensation has closely tracked their productivity over the past generation. Policymakers should not worry about closing this nonexistent gap. Instead they should look for ways to improve the skills of less-productive workers. We can compare this to the Economic Policy Institute's response, which includes this footnote: Just as one example, Heritage assumes that the gap between compensation and productivity caused by difference in the price deflators used to calculate productivity of firms and used to calculate inflation-adjusted compensation should be seen simply as evidence that consumer price inflation is overstated. There’s an equally compelling interpretation (pdf) that this is instead evidence that we’re overstating the productivity of firms that can be translated into consumption growth, and hence that the last generation has been characterized not just by growing inequality, but by even worse overall economic performance than is commonly thought. and which generally criticizes the Heritage report for using average rather than median compensation figures. http://www.epi.org/blog/compensationproductivity-link-broken-vast/#_note1 Average is correct, median is incorrect. Compensation is correct, wages is incorrect. You don't need a special price index for benefits when you use a price index for the economy as a whole. Sorry, but everything you posted here is wrong. If you want me to break down every part here, ask and I will. And why would average is correct and not median ? Because it suits you better ?
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On August 15 2014 07:27 Wolfstan wrote: Forgive my ignorance, but are there still "black communities" and "white communities" in the states? I thought that segregation ended, or are communities just based on wealth? Anyone have a statistic saying if you're black you have and 90% chance to have black neighbors or something?
In the states and everywhere else.
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On August 17 2014 02:15 WhiteDog wrote:Show nested quote +On August 17 2014 02:07 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 17 2014 01:40 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 08:43 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 08:17 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 08:11 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 08:01 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:58 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:52 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:47 JonnyBNoHo wrote: [quote] Did you read my post?? Where do you want to go ? There's a 50 pts gap, it's huge, in your graph. Secondary my graph is about non supervisionary workers, because everybody knows there is an inflation in higher wage, especially in the US - your graph being an "average" of all "compensation" doesn't take that into account. ?? I didn't deny a gap. You're either having a hard time reading my posts or you aren't reading them at all. I used the phrase "small" because the gap is much smaller than in your graphs. Subjectively, I think it is small anyways as it only represents a few percent of GDP. Secondly, it is misleading to post productivity with non-supervisory median wages. The link between productivity and income is with total compensation for all workers, not wages for non-supervisory. Additionally, the link needs to use the same deflators for them to be correct. You remember that in the same post I also posted another graph with 4 curve and each different scenario, each showing a gap ? You just quoted the one that you wanted to criticise right ? And can you tell me what's a big gap for you ? 50 pts is "small", so what's big ? 100 ? How can you judge that the gap is small or big ? Both your graphs deserve criticism for the same reasons. As for calling the gap small, did you not notice where I said "subjectively"?? And it's not misleading because you can't evaluate the productivity of non supervisionary workers alone since productivity per group or per anything doesn't exist since production is a social activity you know. Your logic is completely backwards here. If you can't measure the productivity of non-supervisory workers alone than you shouldn't be posting their compensation along with a graph of productivity. edit: You can talk to no end about the statistics and everything else (because all statistical artifacts are rather rash picture of reality), and then there is the fact, there is a gap - bigger than anything since 1950 so I will use the term "huge" gap because I want to, just like you use to term "small" because you want to - and a stagnation of the bottom 25 % wages since 20 years. Bottom 25% of income has risen. I wouldn't call that stagnation, unless you want to look at simple gross wages. I don't think that's a particularly meaningful stat though. 1 - I subjectively consider that all men are pink. 2 - The logic is not backwards, it's just that there are no statistical artefact to specifically evaluate what we are talking about so we purposefully use a deficient one but better than all compensation of all workers. It's often the case in social science : using imperfect data. 3 - I specifically said wage. I consider it very meaningful for political reasons. 1 - You wrote: "How can you judge that the gap is small or big ?" Exactly. Calling it big or small is subjective, unless we can agree on some metric for determining the 'bigness' of the gap. 2 - Sure, using imperfect data can sometimes be OK but you should be upfront about it. Productivity and median non-supervisory wages aren't supposed to be linked. Posting a graph of them together as if they were supposed to be linked (as total productivity and total compensation are) seems misleading to me, if not downright wrong. 3 - Politically it is meaningful, especially when it comes to quick talking points, but from an economic standpoint not so much. Income matters much more than a subset of income. 1 - You put aside the fact that my assumption that the gap is "huge" is based in historical data, and not on my subjectivity alone : it is the biggest gap since WWII. 2 - Your data on compensation are also imperfect. It's "on average", in a broad and statistically homogeneous population, with no distinction between top and bottom income, and "real" value like inflation is an homogeneous phenomena that touch every income group in the same way. Yet I'm not nitpicking since I consider imperfect data as a norm in social science. 3 - It is even meaningful economically, since wage are supposed to be set at marginal productivity in economical theory. This theorical stand is not only an hypothesis, it is and has been the ground justification for capitalism for most economists : it is a question of merit since your wage is relative to your productivity. A gap, small, big or whatever, is yet another clue to point that the theory of the pure and perfect market is false. It's an economical, theorical, moral and political problem, and you're putting it aside for your own conveniance. 1 - You put aside the fact that my gap was small compared to your gap. This is a really petty discussion point. Put this one aside? 2 - It's not so imperfect in the context that it's used. Again, the link is between productivity and compensation and those are the two lines used. Really, that should be the end of the story here. If you want to bring up inequality there exists appropriate data for that. What you shouldn't do is improperly display a productivity-compensation chart just to make it easier to tell your story. 3- Again, you should be talking about compensation here, not just wages. Did you want to talk about why the gap exists, because we can do that! I can show you a breakdown of all the relevant components that contributed to gap. It's pretty benign. Two big ones (as I said a while back) are faster depreciation and imputed rent to homeowners. A third big one is an end to a secular decline in corporate profits around 1980 - which had to happen at some point since profits aren't sustainable at zero. 1 - It's smaller than mine, but not "small". 2 - It is imperfect. The link that we were discussing about is between productivity and compensation for the bottom "99 %". You're talking about you for the second part of your comment, right ? 3 - No. Just because you read a conservative piece of econ doesn't make it true. The core problem is that the distribution of income is a political matter, and not an economic one. The simple fact that you go from wage to compensation prove that in itself - because "compensations" are the result of policies right ? Show nested quote +On August 17 2014 01:56 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 14:37 IgnE wrote:On August 16 2014 08:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:51 GreenHorizons wrote:On August 16 2014 07:42 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:29 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:00 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 06:41 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 06:36 Sub40APM wrote: [quote] Income gains among the non 1% have stalled since the 80s, while productivity gains continue to climb. Not true, I've made many posts on this. For example: ![[image loading]](https://dl.dropboxusercontent.com/u/72070179/Income%20groups.PNG) The 1% have done much better than average, but incomes have risen over a wide swath of the population. And you think you're graph prove that what we were talking about is wrong ? lol + Show Spoiler +![[image loading]](http://graphics8.nytimes.com/images/2012/04/28/opinion/042812krugman2/042812krugman2-blog480.jpg) You don't see the gap ? http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/04/28/where-the-productivity-went/?_php=true&_type=blogs&_r=0A key to understanding this growth of income inequality—and the disappointing increases in workers’ wages and compensation and middle-class incomes—is understanding the divergence of pay and productivity. Productivity growth has risen substantially over the last few decades but the hourly compensation of the typical worker has seen much more modest growth, especially in the last 10 years or so. The gap between productivity and the compensation growth for the typical worker has been larger in the “lost decade” since the early 2000s than at any point in the post-World War II period. In contrast, productivity and the compensation of the typical worker grew in tandem over the early postwar period until the 1970s. http://www.epi.org/publication/ib330-productivity-vs-compensation You wrote that the bottom 99% have had their income stagnate since 1980. I think the chart I posted refuted that rather well. As for the productivity-compensation gap, much of it is error from using different price deflators for productivity and income or ignoring benefits. The correct chart looks this: Linkstill a gap, but it isn't huge. Also, some of the gap is due to higher depreciation rates and 'imputed' income to homeowners. LOL You're taking a graph that goes back to 1947 to make it seem like the gap is "not huge". Awesome. That's like 50 pts gap (at least) with 1947 at base 100. I think the graphs do a good job of showing the underlying theme regardless of the severity. The majority of people are working harder/being more productive and getting compensated less for their efforts/production, while the top 'earners' are gathering a growing share of the wealth generated by the increased productivity. That's exactly the misinterpretation that I'm trying to prevent. The chart shows that the economy as a whole is more productive and that people are, again as a whole, being compensated more. It also shows that the compensation isn't 100% commensurate with the productivity gain (which may be OK, or not). What the chart does not show is that any subset of the economy is being unfairly compensated in relation to their productivity. That does not mean all subgroups are fairly compensated in relation to their productivity, only that if that is happening, the graph doesn't show it. Instead of quoting that lame Cleveland Fed website you should quote the real source of your massaged data, the Heritage Foundation, so that WhiteDog can respond properly. http://www.heritage.org/research/reports/2013/07/productivity-and-compensation-growing-togetherSo the differences in the graph include things like benefits and "paid leave" that weren't figured into the more popularly used wages vs productivity graph. It's unclear what paid leave means and why it wouldn't be included in wages, since you still get wages, you just happen to not show up at work. My inclination is to say that the massaging Heritage does by including benefits ignores overall increased spending on healthcare that is canceled out by increased benefits, factoring in bonuses somehow, despite the fact that the overwhelming majority of the workforce has no access to appreciable bonuses, and favorable inflation measures that diminish the apparent difference but ignore the differences in inflation's effects on those with less income and wealth. Like instead of including benefits as just a lump sum form of "compensation" why are they not indexed and compared to the cost of benefits in the 70s? It seems like benefits are just being included flatly as "compensation" without being adjusted for "benefit inflation." The Lawrence Mishel paper seems more correct ( http://www.csls.ca/ipm/23/IPM-23-Mishel-Gee.pdf). It seems odd to argue, as Heritage does, that workers in healthcare are stuck in a "low productivity" sector and dragging down their own compensation because they lack skills to move into "higher productivity" fields, without taking into account what might be "benefits inflation" in that very field. + Show Spoiler +![[image loading]](http://www.heritage.org/~/media/images/reports/2013/07/bg%202825/bgproductivityandcompensationchart6825.ashx) I also find it odd that Heritage thinks this is a compelling argument: Even this remaining 23 percent gap is exaggerated, for two reasons. The government productivity is mismeasured and overstated, because BLS is doing an incomplete job accounting for the prices of imported goods that have been used in production. Consider a widget factory that starts using cheaper inputs from China. The BLS does not capture the full cost-savings to employers. It appears to BLS that factories are producing more widgets at lower cost. This looks like increased productivity. However, the gains are coming from trade and the lower price foreign goods, not worker productivity. This may account for about half of the remaining 23 point gap you see in Figure 12. It's as if being able to pay Chinese workers far less than American workers does not impact worker productivity. Yes, the productivity is not American productivity, but to pretend that this isn't a problem in itself, and to pretend that it doesn't specifically affect American workers, seems like economic accounting sleight of hand. The Heritage Foundation's paper: Conclusion
Many pundits and politicians contend that employees’ pay has not kept up with their productivity and that this phenomenon pre-dates the recent deep recession and sluggish recovery. They argue that workers are more productive than ever before, but that employers systematically underpay them. Fortunately, these claims are false. They rest on mistaken comparisons of economic data. Looking at total compensation data—including benefits—from the same source as the productivity figures and using consistent measures of inflation eliminate over three-quarters of the apparent gap between pay and productivity. Factors artificially inflating productivity—like greater depreciation and measurement errors—account for most of the remaining difference. Workers’ compensation has closely tracked their productivity over the past generation. Policymakers should not worry about closing this nonexistent gap. Instead they should look for ways to improve the skills of less-productive workers. We can compare this to the Economic Policy Institute's response, which includes this footnote: Just as one example, Heritage assumes that the gap between compensation and productivity caused by difference in the price deflators used to calculate productivity of firms and used to calculate inflation-adjusted compensation should be seen simply as evidence that consumer price inflation is overstated. There’s an equally compelling interpretation (pdf) that this is instead evidence that we’re overstating the productivity of firms that can be translated into consumption growth, and hence that the last generation has been characterized not just by growing inequality, but by even worse overall economic performance than is commonly thought. and which generally criticizes the Heritage report for using average rather than median compensation figures. http://www.epi.org/blog/compensationproductivity-link-broken-vast/#_note1 Average is correct, median is incorrect. Compensation is correct, wages is incorrect. You don't need a special price index for benefits when you use a price index for the economy as a whole. Sorry, but everything you posted here is wrong. If you want me to break down every part here, ask and I will. And why would average is correct and not median ? Because it suits you better ? 1 - ignoring. 2 - The link is between productivity for all workers and compensation for all workers, not a subset of workers. If you want to use a subset of workers, you need both a subset of productivity as well as a subset of compensation. 3 - I use compensation because it's the correct measure. What conservative piece of econ? IgnE claims I got my information from the Heritage Foundation. I didn't, he's an liar.
And again, average is correct because it is consistent with the theory that we're using. If productivity increases that creates a limited pool of new resources to be distributed. Part of that pool of resources will be distributed to workers in the form of compensation (wages + benefits). What the theory does not say, is that those new resources will be evenly distributed to all workers or that wages will remain a constant fraction of total compensation.
Edit: why don't you want to talk about what caused the gap?
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On August 17 2014 02:56 JonnyBNoHo wrote:Show nested quote +On August 17 2014 02:15 WhiteDog wrote:On August 17 2014 02:07 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 17 2014 01:40 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 08:43 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 08:17 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 08:11 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 08:01 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:58 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:52 WhiteDog wrote: [quote] Where do you want to go ? There's a 50 pts gap, it's huge, in your graph. Secondary my graph is about non supervisionary workers, because everybody knows there is an inflation in higher wage, especially in the US - your graph being an "average" of all "compensation" doesn't take that into account. ?? I didn't deny a gap. You're either having a hard time reading my posts or you aren't reading them at all. I used the phrase "small" because the gap is much smaller than in your graphs. Subjectively, I think it is small anyways as it only represents a few percent of GDP. Secondly, it is misleading to post productivity with non-supervisory median wages. The link between productivity and income is with total compensation for all workers, not wages for non-supervisory. Additionally, the link needs to use the same deflators for them to be correct. You remember that in the same post I also posted another graph with 4 curve and each different scenario, each showing a gap ? You just quoted the one that you wanted to criticise right ? And can you tell me what's a big gap for you ? 50 pts is "small", so what's big ? 100 ? How can you judge that the gap is small or big ? Both your graphs deserve criticism for the same reasons. As for calling the gap small, did you not notice where I said "subjectively"?? And it's not misleading because you can't evaluate the productivity of non supervisionary workers alone since productivity per group or per anything doesn't exist since production is a social activity you know. Your logic is completely backwards here. If you can't measure the productivity of non-supervisory workers alone than you shouldn't be posting their compensation along with a graph of productivity. edit: You can talk to no end about the statistics and everything else (because all statistical artifacts are rather rash picture of reality), and then there is the fact, there is a gap - bigger than anything since 1950 so I will use the term "huge" gap because I want to, just like you use to term "small" because you want to - and a stagnation of the bottom 25 % wages since 20 years. Bottom 25% of income has risen. I wouldn't call that stagnation, unless you want to look at simple gross wages. I don't think that's a particularly meaningful stat though. 1 - I subjectively consider that all men are pink. 2 - The logic is not backwards, it's just that there are no statistical artefact to specifically evaluate what we are talking about so we purposefully use a deficient one but better than all compensation of all workers. It's often the case in social science : using imperfect data. 3 - I specifically said wage. I consider it very meaningful for political reasons. 1 - You wrote: "How can you judge that the gap is small or big ?" Exactly. Calling it big or small is subjective, unless we can agree on some metric for determining the 'bigness' of the gap. 2 - Sure, using imperfect data can sometimes be OK but you should be upfront about it. Productivity and median non-supervisory wages aren't supposed to be linked. Posting a graph of them together as if they were supposed to be linked (as total productivity and total compensation are) seems misleading to me, if not downright wrong. 3 - Politically it is meaningful, especially when it comes to quick talking points, but from an economic standpoint not so much. Income matters much more than a subset of income. 1 - You put aside the fact that my assumption that the gap is "huge" is based in historical data, and not on my subjectivity alone : it is the biggest gap since WWII. 2 - Your data on compensation are also imperfect. It's "on average", in a broad and statistically homogeneous population, with no distinction between top and bottom income, and "real" value like inflation is an homogeneous phenomena that touch every income group in the same way. Yet I'm not nitpicking since I consider imperfect data as a norm in social science. 3 - It is even meaningful economically, since wage are supposed to be set at marginal productivity in economical theory. This theorical stand is not only an hypothesis, it is and has been the ground justification for capitalism for most economists : it is a question of merit since your wage is relative to your productivity. A gap, small, big or whatever, is yet another clue to point that the theory of the pure and perfect market is false. It's an economical, theorical, moral and political problem, and you're putting it aside for your own conveniance. 1 - You put aside the fact that my gap was small compared to your gap. This is a really petty discussion point. Put this one aside? 2 - It's not so imperfect in the context that it's used. Again, the link is between productivity and compensation and those are the two lines used. Really, that should be the end of the story here. If you want to bring up inequality there exists appropriate data for that. What you shouldn't do is improperly display a productivity-compensation chart just to make it easier to tell your story. 3- Again, you should be talking about compensation here, not just wages. Did you want to talk about why the gap exists, because we can do that! I can show you a breakdown of all the relevant components that contributed to gap. It's pretty benign. Two big ones (as I said a while back) are faster depreciation and imputed rent to homeowners. A third big one is an end to a secular decline in corporate profits around 1980 - which had to happen at some point since profits aren't sustainable at zero. 1 - It's smaller than mine, but not "small". 2 - It is imperfect. The link that we were discussing about is between productivity and compensation for the bottom "99 %". You're talking about you for the second part of your comment, right ? 3 - No. Just because you read a conservative piece of econ doesn't make it true. The core problem is that the distribution of income is a political matter, and not an economic one. The simple fact that you go from wage to compensation prove that in itself - because "compensations" are the result of policies right ? On August 17 2014 01:56 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 14:37 IgnE wrote:On August 16 2014 08:55 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:51 GreenHorizons wrote:On August 16 2014 07:42 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 07:29 JonnyBNoHo wrote:On August 16 2014 07:00 WhiteDog wrote:On August 16 2014 06:41 JonnyBNoHo wrote:[quote] Not true, I've made many posts on this. For example: ![[image loading]](https://dl.dropboxusercontent.com/u/72070179/Income%20groups.PNG) The 1% have done much better than average, but incomes have risen over a wide swath of the population. And you think you're graph prove that what we were talking about is wrong ? lol + Show Spoiler +![[image loading]](http://graphics8.nytimes.com/images/2012/04/28/opinion/042812krugman2/042812krugman2-blog480.jpg) You don't see the gap ? http://krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2012/04/28/where-the-productivity-went/?_php=true&_type=blogs&_r=0A key to understanding this growth of income inequality—and the disappointing increases in workers’ wages and compensation and middle-class incomes—is understanding the divergence of pay and productivity. Productivity growth has risen substantially over the last few decades but the hourly compensation of the typical worker has seen much more modest growth, especially in the last 10 years or so. The gap between productivity and the compensation growth for the typical worker has been larger in the “lost decade” since the early 2000s than at any point in the post-World War II period. In contrast, productivity and the compensation of the typical worker grew in tandem over the early postwar period until the 1970s. http://www.epi.org/publication/ib330-productivity-vs-compensation You wrote that the bottom 99% have had their income stagnate since 1980. I think the chart I posted refuted that rather well. As for the productivity-compensation gap, much of it is error from using different price deflators for productivity and income or ignoring benefits. The correct chart looks this: Linkstill a gap, but it isn't huge. Also, some of the gap is due to higher depreciation rates and 'imputed' income to homeowners. LOL You're taking a graph that goes back to 1947 to make it seem like the gap is "not huge". Awesome. That's like 50 pts gap (at least) with 1947 at base 100. I think the graphs do a good job of showing the underlying theme regardless of the severity. The majority of people are working harder/being more productive and getting compensated less for their efforts/production, while the top 'earners' are gathering a growing share of the wealth generated by the increased productivity. That's exactly the misinterpretation that I'm trying to prevent. The chart shows that the economy as a whole is more productive and that people are, again as a whole, being compensated more. It also shows that the compensation isn't 100% commensurate with the productivity gain (which may be OK, or not). What the chart does not show is that any subset of the economy is being unfairly compensated in relation to their productivity. That does not mean all subgroups are fairly compensated in relation to their productivity, only that if that is happening, the graph doesn't show it. Instead of quoting that lame Cleveland Fed website you should quote the real source of your massaged data, the Heritage Foundation, so that WhiteDog can respond properly. http://www.heritage.org/research/reports/2013/07/productivity-and-compensation-growing-togetherSo the differences in the graph include things like benefits and "paid leave" that weren't figured into the more popularly used wages vs productivity graph. It's unclear what paid leave means and why it wouldn't be included in wages, since you still get wages, you just happen to not show up at work. My inclination is to say that the massaging Heritage does by including benefits ignores overall increased spending on healthcare that is canceled out by increased benefits, factoring in bonuses somehow, despite the fact that the overwhelming majority of the workforce has no access to appreciable bonuses, and favorable inflation measures that diminish the apparent difference but ignore the differences in inflation's effects on those with less income and wealth. Like instead of including benefits as just a lump sum form of "compensation" why are they not indexed and compared to the cost of benefits in the 70s? It seems like benefits are just being included flatly as "compensation" without being adjusted for "benefit inflation." The Lawrence Mishel paper seems more correct ( http://www.csls.ca/ipm/23/IPM-23-Mishel-Gee.pdf). It seems odd to argue, as Heritage does, that workers in healthcare are stuck in a "low productivity" sector and dragging down their own compensation because they lack skills to move into "higher productivity" fields, without taking into account what might be "benefits inflation" in that very field. + Show Spoiler +![[image loading]](http://www.heritage.org/~/media/images/reports/2013/07/bg%202825/bgproductivityandcompensationchart6825.ashx) I also find it odd that Heritage thinks this is a compelling argument: Even this remaining 23 percent gap is exaggerated, for two reasons. The government productivity is mismeasured and overstated, because BLS is doing an incomplete job accounting for the prices of imported goods that have been used in production. Consider a widget factory that starts using cheaper inputs from China. The BLS does not capture the full cost-savings to employers. It appears to BLS that factories are producing more widgets at lower cost. This looks like increased productivity. However, the gains are coming from trade and the lower price foreign goods, not worker productivity. This may account for about half of the remaining 23 point gap you see in Figure 12. It's as if being able to pay Chinese workers far less than American workers does not impact worker productivity. Yes, the productivity is not American productivity, but to pretend that this isn't a problem in itself, and to pretend that it doesn't specifically affect American workers, seems like economic accounting sleight of hand. The Heritage Foundation's paper: Conclusion
Many pundits and politicians contend that employees’ pay has not kept up with their productivity and that this phenomenon pre-dates the recent deep recession and sluggish recovery. They argue that workers are more productive than ever before, but that employers systematically underpay them. Fortunately, these claims are false. They rest on mistaken comparisons of economic data. Looking at total compensation data—including benefits—from the same source as the productivity figures and using consistent measures of inflation eliminate over three-quarters of the apparent gap between pay and productivity. Factors artificially inflating productivity—like greater depreciation and measurement errors—account for most of the remaining difference. Workers’ compensation has closely tracked their productivity over the past generation. Policymakers should not worry about closing this nonexistent gap. Instead they should look for ways to improve the skills of less-productive workers. We can compare this to the Economic Policy Institute's response, which includes this footnote: Just as one example, Heritage assumes that the gap between compensation and productivity caused by difference in the price deflators used to calculate productivity of firms and used to calculate inflation-adjusted compensation should be seen simply as evidence that consumer price inflation is overstated. There’s an equally compelling interpretation (pdf) that this is instead evidence that we’re overstating the productivity of firms that can be translated into consumption growth, and hence that the last generation has been characterized not just by growing inequality, but by even worse overall economic performance than is commonly thought. and which generally criticizes the Heritage report for using average rather than median compensation figures. http://www.epi.org/blog/compensationproductivity-link-broken-vast/#_note1 Average is correct, median is incorrect. Compensation is correct, wages is incorrect. You don't need a special price index for benefits when you use a price index for the economy as a whole. Sorry, but everything you posted here is wrong. If you want me to break down every part here, ask and I will. And why would average is correct and not median ? Because it suits you better ? 1 - ignoring. 2 - The link is between productivity for all workers and compensation for all workers, not a subset of workers. If you want to use a subset of workers, you need both a subset of productivity as well as a subset of compensation. 3 - I use compensation because it's the correct measure. What conservative piece of econ? IgnE claims I got my information from the Heritage Foundation. I didn't, he's an liar.And again, average is correct because it is consistent with the theory that we're using. If productivity increases that creates a limited pool of new resources to be distributed. Part of that pool of resources will be distributed to workers in the form of compensation (wages + benefits). What the theory does not say, is that those new resources will be evenly distributed to all workers or that wages will remain a constant fraction of total compensation. Edit: why don't you want to talk about what caused the gap? 1 - Because I'm right. 2 - Subset productivity can't be evaluated, so we use something else ... That's social science. 3 - Well, IgnE being a liar or not (but I think he's not) you just expanded the calculation to a point where the gap is the smaller possible, with approximation and imperfect measurement - you didn't say anything about the fact that adjusted value are not necessarily a good measurement when talking about an heterogeneous group, nothing about the fact that AVERAGE is skewed because of a higher concentration in higher income, etc. And you didn't even argue on the fact that, even with your graph, there is still a 50 pts gap - that you cannot caracterize as "small". So who's fault is it for the 50 pts gap ? The state regulation ?
What's the theory that we are using ? It's not consistent, what's consistent is to put BOTH average and median, to see the average on one side, and how skewed the distribution is... That's why both median, average, and every possible measure are on the graph I posted, because it is a good and objective work, not a biased artifact made to comfort you in your own dreamland. By the way, you did the EXACT same thing with the inequalities between men and women. Soon you'll show us that not so many people people are dying because of ebola in africa, because if you take into consideration the average life expectancy, chance to get any other deadly disease, chance to fall in a pit and chance to be crushed by a car, 80 % of the dead would have died anyway.
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average is no more correct than median. it depends on what you are looking at. and if the cost of benefts rises faster than the cost of other goods in the bundle than benefits inflation should be calculated differently, while also explaining why "compensation" appearing to rise (through benefits) is an illusion. its very disingenuous of you to say that one way of calculating inflation (the ipd or pce way) is "more correct" while dismissing any arguments about the deficiency of said techniques in accurately measuring inflation in another economic sector. go ahead and explain in more detail why you think im wrong.
as for calling me a liar, maybe you didnt get the data from Heritage but that's where it originated and that's where you should have gotten it from
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