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But in the Austrian view human action is always "rational". That is a matter of definition. While it is possible to build a internally consistent structure from a number of basic definitions, it does not make it "useful." You may want to claim, but oh, "it is the truth" but that is just meaningless as philosophies defines its own truth. It is perfectly valid to have philosophies where "human action is always irrelevant" and prove an entire extensions of theorems after the axiom.
Satisfaction of a given valued end is prefered sooner over satisfaction of the same end later
An assertion, not a proof. The fact that I'm typing this as opposed to having lunch is a counter example. (and one counter example is sufficient) Of course, one can always argue deeper and claim that satisfaction latter is "greater" by some fudge factor. Well, if the fudge factor is not constant than the assertion is useless in computing utility or predicting behavior. It is no better than saying, "everyone dies except those that doesn't."
A good consumed in the present cannot be consumed in the future I listened to my music CD therefore can not listen to it again? Oh, but "consumption" means destruction and what we have is 1+1 = 1+1 since what one has proven is that "goods that are destroyed is destroyed" but says nothing about "real" goods.
To challenge this, you must present an example of human action which is not "rational", or, in other (better) words which is not purposeful pursuit of valued ends using scarce means. I can not present this under the framework of axioms presented, but I can point out the flaws of the framework.
Humans all die. Humans even kill themselves. So what is value? The definition here is circular because VALUE IS DEFINED BY ACTION! Because people do, therefore value is assigned.
What this is, is a classic philosophical bait and switch trick that is all too common in philosophy, where on hijacks the meaning of a common word by a matter of indirect definition and while inferring the common meaning to support an argument.
If all possible human action is "valuable", from suicide to murder, than it is but a useless word. --------------------------------- I can not tell you what is valuable since you yourself have to find it in yourself. (or you may either copy someone's philosophic framework or just be apathetic)
My suggestion is to disbelieve whatever you are looking at, step back and imagine yourself believing another set of well developed philosophy (throwing everything of the old out of the window) and see if you can disprove it without bringing in outside concepts. Play around a bit and you'd understand the limits of logic.
Think about it this way. You are first of all a human being (over a thinking, rational or logical being). If humans are suppose to be logical beings with the same set of starting axioms, than there'd be no arguments in the universe since the result is self evident. (with enough processing power) Since that is not what humans do, there is no need to tie yourself to a logic frame work. It is fine to be the irrational "i don't know and i don't care" just as well. Frankly, the latter might be more useful starting point for arguments as logical frameworks are just tools.
You can define value as this, i can define value as god's law or some other crap and one wouldn't be able to have a debate since fundamental disagreement on the axioms can not be argued by logic.
People choose philosophies, not the inverse.
There are innumerable reasons why economics is a poor discipline to tackle with empiricism. Axioms without observation is pure math.
There is no functional discipline outside of empirical discipline. Axiomatic approaches result in models and only models and making it truth is just broken epistemology. Since there is no observation, there is no understanding of what is a "human", thus it would be perfectly valid to say:
"In the neo-austrian view, ant action is always rational. Ant action is an actor's purposeful pursuit of valued ends with scarce means. ....*15 pages of inductions latter* and we thus prove that ownership and free trade is optimal for ants"
Yes, it would be perfectly valid, since the specifics of human (or ant) capabilities and behavior is not necessary.
Of course, this is absurd. But that is because we all know and observe humans and let the information "leak" into our understanding. (by defining humans as having a different set of trait from ants, for example) However this backdoor trick is just weak since it is not entirely honest nor does it lead to good observations or good conclusion from the observations.
Economics is build on models. Models exist because reality is too hard to compute or analyze, but at no point do models become reality itself nor should models become the focus.
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Cayman Islands24199 Posts
"But in the Austrian view human action is always "rational"." how do you define rational
SWPIGWANG covers the difficulty here pretty well. going to sleep
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Again, I think I've failed in conveying the objective effectively. What sorts of non-tradeable goods can not be incorporated. This isn't outside the scope of austrian theory. What are you talking about? Give me an example. I don't think there is anything in the human domain which cannot be accounted for.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Externalities
I breath oxygen and I can not survive with pollutants in the air. Lets say some factory nearby now spits out toxic gases and do damage to me. So what do I do?
Well, the smart Austrian that knows what I'm talking about would say: monetarize that shit and call it a day. Since clean air has value and is scarce, it needs to be owned by someone.
But how do we do this? Does everyone that take a breath of air needs to pay someone else with a tree on their lawn. A breath of air can drift everywhere and so is a whiff of pollution. So does the polluting factory needs to pay everyone in a hundred kilometers around a fraction of a penny, but also dependent on how much they breath? How is ownership of air controlled anyways, do you control a fixed area of air in fixed location or is it more like a tradeable right?
Now, I should note that many things that is traded on the market today was considered property only relatively recently. For example, intellectual property. Before the invention of intellectual property, inventing things and writing works paid nothing and was not part of the economy. There are a lot of things left out there that is scarce and have value but not traded.
Look at the wiki page. There is a lot of things that need to be taken under the wing of property rights. They are not necessarily impossible, but they are hard and no good solution exists today.
The lazy Austrian would write in his axioms: "assume all such goods are monetarized" and call it a day.
Well, I'm sorry, we can't have Austrian economics until the execution details are all complete. The microeconomists needs to step up and finish all the pieces first.
The problem is that you always have to make that choice for some people by force. Why do that? If anything it's just begging for trouble - you create civil unrest any time you have to force people to do things they don't want, and every extraneous government programme is something like this. Human beings are upset if they aren't forcing other people to behave the way they want to! If you prohibit force against each other, the first thing they'd do is to apply force on you.
The funny thing is that you are more likely to have civil unrest if you imposed the libertarian project on them. People can reject "freedom" since imposing power on others is often more important than one's own personal freedom. Human beings often care about others far more than oneself and to ignore that is to ignore everything.
If you are ever in doubt, just go to a place with fundamentalist culture. They don't want freedom, what they want is everyone follow a set of rules, including themselves.
Anarchy never survives since the first instinct of people is to impose a set of rules. I'm reminded of a book I've read about homeless youth culture, and the funny thing is that despite their rejection of mainstream rule and laws, a new set of informal restrictive rules are created and enforced by everything up to capital punishment in case of violation. The entire branch of "freedom thinking" is ignoring one of man's primal instincts and that is a fast track to failure just like communism. The best one gets is a hack of tensions from all directions without the elegance and purity of a ideological system.
And if people do have to be forced, then are you really the benevolent nation you appear to be.... It doesn't matter. What matters is people believe it. (and you think people are reasonable?....I laugh) If you ask, government programs are really a "cheap method to psychic comfort." One doesn't actually pay much money (fraction of tax dollar into foreign aid? i laugh) but can feel as if they've done their job which would likely cost far more in private donations since they are far more aware of their limits.
Man's greed is infinite - he will always find new desires to satisfy when previous ones are sated. Infinity isn't exactly a battle one would fight. If we compute this, than the whole capitalist project is pointless.
Infinity - wealth = infinity
If no matter what you do, it is not sated, whats the exact point? Because it sounds nice? Whats the point of wealth for its own sake? If the point is not to make people happy that what is it?
If the point is to make people happy, than there are other tricks then honest ones and other factors than wealth and things that can be traded....haha
If everything people care about can be traded, than your opinion would merely be for a price and I wouldn't need to type all that......
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Apparently Karl Marx's work has increased in sales again as well so I suppose this is to be expected, particually with the apparent increase in Libertarianism.
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On April 21 2009 10:10 Caller wrote:Show nested quote +On April 21 2009 09:56 Tal wrote: This is going to sound ignorant, but I really don't understand Libertarianism- or at least the economic brand that Ann Rand fans seem to put across. Which schools of philosophy or philosophers include it in their theories? With something like socialism I've been presented with endless (fairly convincing) arguments, which are underpinned by present day thinkers like John Rawls. Yet I'm yet to hear any philosopher or philosophy mentioned with LIbertarianism. Who should I read? In the British press I have read continuously scathing extracts of Ann Rand's writing, and I've never seen her referenced in academia, so I'd like to find someone else if possible. Also, while on philosophy, what is Libertarianism's main goal? From this thread it doesn't seem to be to promote the standard of living of all (unless constant unregulated competition is their standard.) What provisions does it give for the unfortunate which makes it superior to European welfare state based economies? Are there examples of this? Aren't their serious problems with assuming a business will eventually go out of business if it treats its workers badly (e.g it will be able to do so for a long time, and in some circumstances might be able to survive) When people put forward other ideologies, even ones I think are self-interested or stupid (Conservatism), I kind of understand them. But when someone says Libertarianism I don't quite get it.
Libertarianism is the idea that people should have civil liberties and economic liberties alike. Akin to the classical liberalism of the Enlightenment (see: John Locke, Mill), it advocates a minimal size of government and negative liberties, i.e. the right to do whatever you want without infringing on the rights of others. There are many branches of Libertarianism. On one hand, you have the Objectivists, Ayn Rand's faction. They believe in Egoism, which essentially praises the individual above all else, i.e. "I will not live my life for the sake of any other man." They are very anti-welfare, but are criticized by other libertarians because they trust too much in Ayn Rand as a cult, as well as more didactic differences. You also have the Austrian branch, i.e. RON PAUL 2012. These libertarians are bordering anarchy-they are considered anarcho-capitalist. They believe that government should play no role in anything, and that in a private, free-market (this is key) people will be able to succeed and spread prosperity, and there will not be large mega-corporations infringing the people. You have then more mainstream Libertarians in the Chicago Branch, which was based off of Milton Friedman's theories. Friedman was very opposed to most government involvement in the economy, and also advocated (to a lesser extent) government influence in war and civil policy. This branch is the most mainstream and is essentially one of the core groups of the Libertarian party. If you want to know the thinkers that advocate Libertarianism, the list would include John Locke, Alexis de Tocqueville, Edmund Burke to an extent, Rousseau, Thoreau and Emerson, Milton Friedman, F. A. Hayek, Thomas Jefferson, John Stuart Mill, George Washington, Ludwig von Mises, and there are many, many other thinkers that support libertarian thought (although back then, it was considered liberalism, not today's liberalism, which is more of a progressivism/democratic socialism)
Thankyou, and cheers to the other replies. The objectivists sound fairly unpalatable, it seems odd to totally remove empathy from philosophy. I'm familiar with Locke, Burke, Rousseau and Mill - and can kind of see how Locke and Burke are part of a free-market tradition, with their focus on property rights. I'm less sure about Rousseau and Mill, as it seems their ideas like the general will or utilitarinism could be drawn upon by any ideology. It sounds like it would be worth me checking out Hayek and Friedman, could you recomend a core text? In answer to whoever said Conservatism isn't an ideology, I know that technically it isn't (being largely reactionary to the trends of the time), but the way I studied it showed that it valued certain principles (tradition, property rights, stablity), in a fairly ideological way, so it can generally be talked about in the same way. I still haven't quite got my head round the core point of Libertarianism. If a free market is promoted, and that generates wealth (which it seems to do), why is that the best thing? What gurantee does that give to the unfortunate? It seems like by its nature there could be no safety net in place, which seems kind of troubling...
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Many objectivists and libretarians don't believe that they lack empathy, or that the 'lack of a safety net' is a moral failing. If a person is disabled, all but the most extreme believe in society helping them. However, for those who are able to work but do not, social welfare isn't necessarily defined as 'help'. The idea is that if you choose to help them personally, that's fine, but to require others in society to do so is not charity, but theft. The best 'help' they can receive is to be forced to take care of themselves, since survival will require that they become productive members of society. E.g. give a man a fish if you personally choose, but teach him to fish for himself, and require no other person to give him a fish.
Also, to be fair, Milton Friedman did propose a negative income tax to replace the welfare system, so he believed in a safety net of sorts. He believed in a minimum income, but didn't like how the current system was set up. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Milton_Friedman#Public_policy_positions
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On April 21 2009 19:59 Tal wrote:Show nested quote +On April 21 2009 10:10 Caller wrote:On April 21 2009 09:56 Tal wrote: This is going to sound ignorant, but I really don't understand Libertarianism- or at least the economic brand that Ann Rand fans seem to put across. Which schools of philosophy or philosophers include it in their theories? With something like socialism I've been presented with endless (fairly convincing) arguments, which are underpinned by present day thinkers like John Rawls. Yet I'm yet to hear any philosopher or philosophy mentioned with LIbertarianism. Who should I read? In the British press I have read continuously scathing extracts of Ann Rand's writing, and I've never seen her referenced in academia, so I'd like to find someone else if possible. Also, while on philosophy, what is Libertarianism's main goal? From this thread it doesn't seem to be to promote the standard of living of all (unless constant unregulated competition is their standard.) What provisions does it give for the unfortunate which makes it superior to European welfare state based economies? Are there examples of this? Aren't their serious problems with assuming a business will eventually go out of business if it treats its workers badly (e.g it will be able to do so for a long time, and in some circumstances might be able to survive) When people put forward other ideologies, even ones I think are self-interested or stupid (Conservatism), I kind of understand them. But when someone says Libertarianism I don't quite get it.
Libertarianism is the idea that people should have civil liberties and economic liberties alike. Akin to the classical liberalism of the Enlightenment (see: John Locke, Mill), it advocates a minimal size of government and negative liberties, i.e. the right to do whatever you want without infringing on the rights of others. There are many branches of Libertarianism. On one hand, you have the Objectivists, Ayn Rand's faction. They believe in Egoism, which essentially praises the individual above all else, i.e. "I will not live my life for the sake of any other man." They are very anti-welfare, but are criticized by other libertarians because they trust too much in Ayn Rand as a cult, as well as more didactic differences. You also have the Austrian branch, i.e. RON PAUL 2012. These libertarians are bordering anarchy-they are considered anarcho-capitalist. They believe that government should play no role in anything, and that in a private, free-market (this is key) people will be able to succeed and spread prosperity, and there will not be large mega-corporations infringing the people. You have then more mainstream Libertarians in the Chicago Branch, which was based off of Milton Friedman's theories. Friedman was very opposed to most government involvement in the economy, and also advocated (to a lesser extent) government influence in war and civil policy. This branch is the most mainstream and is essentially one of the core groups of the Libertarian party. If you want to know the thinkers that advocate Libertarianism, the list would include John Locke, Alexis de Tocqueville, Edmund Burke to an extent, Rousseau, Thoreau and Emerson, Milton Friedman, F. A. Hayek, Thomas Jefferson, John Stuart Mill, George Washington, Ludwig von Mises, and there are many, many other thinkers that support libertarian thought (although back then, it was considered liberalism, not today's liberalism, which is more of a progressivism/democratic socialism) Thankyou, and cheers to the other replies. The objectivists sound fairly unpalatable, it seems odd to totally remove empathy from philosophy. I'm familiar with Locke, Burke, Rousseau and Mill - and can kind of see how Locke and Burke are part of a free-market tradition, with their focus on property rights. I'm less sure about Rousseau and Mill, as it seems their ideas like the general will or utilitarinism could be drawn upon by any ideology. It sounds like it would be worth me checking out Hayek and Friedman, could you recomend a core text? In answer to whoever said Conservatism isn't an ideology, I know that technically it isn't (being largely reactionary to the trends of the time), but the way I studied it showed that it valued certain principles (tradition, property rights, stablity), in a fairly ideological way, so it can generally be talked about in the same way. I still haven't quite got my head round the core point of Libertarianism. If a free market is promoted, and that generates wealth (which it seems to do), why is that the best thing? What gurantee does that give to the unfortunate? It seems like by its nature there could be no safety net in place, which seems kind of troubling... Hi again, For Hayek and Friedman, Hayek's best known work is The Road to Serfdom, which is less of a libertarian text than that of an anti-socialist/communist text, for that you might want to look up the Constitution of Liberty. But it's still a very good read. Friedman's work is mostly essays, but Capitalism and Freedom is a good explanation. It is generally perceived that a free market economy is the best type of economy, because it maximizes production and competition. This in turn increases the supply of an economy, and also drives the price down, while still maintaining profits for producers, prices are low enough for consumers to be buying at an equilibrium. Some libertarians are in favor of a small safety net, like Milton Friedman and Hayek, while others, especially the Austrians, believe that with the reduction of taxes and the generation of more wealth, well-off individuals will have less of a need for economic capital and a greater need for social capital-and the best way to generate social capital is to raise funds for the less fortunate, as can be seen by the Wall Street bankers until recently. But libertarianism isn't just about the free market. It is also about defending negative liberties, i.e. rather than passing laws stating that a person has the right to do whatever, they advocate laws that say the government cannot do whatever. Libertarians are very distrusting of the government and see it as either corrupt or Leviathan.
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Someone posted "Professor Hans-Hermann Hoppe: Praxeology: The Austrian Method" video on the Austrian method, and I'll answer his points here.
1. Popper does not prove his own philosophy as correct unless you take its propositions as correct to begin with: That is true with all philosophy as all of them assert correctness by simply claiming it or applying circular logic.
2. Absurdity examples where things don't have to be prove and can not be disproven:
Now first of all, I should note that in strictly empirical science, many statements are still "functionally absurd" like claiming that falling from a tall building won't result in death on impact. In the strictest popperian sense, this is not an fundamentally absurd claim, but it is functionally absurd due to amount of falsifications involved. This points to a probabilistic view of knowledge which he glanced over. Now look at his examples:
2.1 In every voluntary exchange, between two individuals both except to benefit at outset of exchange, otherwise they would not. Exchanges must have unequal value in the eyes of the participants and have opposite preference orders. Is this even a hypothesis and how would we go about testing it.
Answer: Testing is easy, just have self reports during/before the exchange, or one can engage in psychological experiments where one is offered a exchange which is then interrupted and a gift of either the good being offered in the exchange is given away without cost instead. (which should work if given decreasing marginal utility)
How can this statement be false: when exchange of items is of lesser importance than other factors, for example exchange of gifts which is often a formality. (just remember gifts your throw away....)
2.2 If we raise the minimum wage to 1million dollars, unemployment would rise:
How can this statement be false: when 1million isn't worth much, look at this 100billion dollar bill (it is not worth a third of a dollar) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File imbabwe_Hyperinflation_2008_notes.jpg
Note that massive numbers is possible through normal inflation over long periods of time, but normally what happens is that new currency with smaller numbers are issued. Certainly, with another species better at math this may not be the case.
Alternative way this statement can be false: one operates under communism/hyper-monopoly which prints all the money! Or if we assume an adjustment period (which can be very short given fast systems) than one can imagine the velocity of money increasing sufficiently to increase the money supply to inflate it back to worthlessness.
...and so and so on.... now factors like relative purchasing power and no alternative employment structures can not be axiomically derived but observed. That said, this is a functionally absurd statement that has high trust value due to number of previous confirmations of the model.
2.3 If we quadrupole supply of money overnight, keeping all else constant there will be inflation: See the line above in section 2.2. Note this would be untrue if velocity of money if highly variable, and this is uncommon since this level of instability is far shorter than human adjustment cycles.
2.3 Under-socialism without private ownership factors of production and then there is no prices for factors of production, one can not use cost accounting
Counter example: The state can still use money and markets as a internal control mechanism despite not having private ownership. One possible arrangement would be markets between government owned organizations. Another possibility would be the assignments of tradeable rights (right to use land, rights to build stuff and so on) and rents out of factors of production but still retain ultimate ownership.
2.4 Decreasing marginal utility and fulfillment of the highest utility demand first.
Counter example: Network effect systems. For example, phones. The first phone is of low utility while every extra phone today have much higher utility due to all the other phones that exist. The same is with airports, internet access and so on. Hell, windows is valuable only because there is so damn many windows computer around.... (thus with it, IT people and supporting software written for the platform)
2.5 Things like Pythagoras theorem or a ball of red and non-red. They are analytic propositions do not need to be proven. (but do not necessarily say anything about reality, like 14 dimensional non-Euclidean geometry as opposed to planar triangles)
3. Claim: Empirical science is useless in social science since predictions are tainted by knowledge:
Now all things are effected by knowledge, and those are indeed can not be predicted. That is the limit to knowledge due to observation horizon and thats all.
4. Argument: Other economists (that aren't Austrian school) run finance and make money, but they aren't the richest people on earth and there are other rich people that don't use models and thus they don't count.
My counter argument: Well, if we see richer Austrians than they'd have a point. Economic theory is not perfect and economists make money mainly out of market imperfections which is finite.
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On April 21 2009 16:26 SWPIGWANG wrote:That is a matter of definition. While it is possible to build a internally consistent structure from a number of basic definitions, it does not make it "useful."
I think that's what I said - that the concept of rationality is not useful.
Show nested quote +Satisfaction of a given valued end is prefered sooner over satisfaction of the same end later
An assertion, not a proof. The fact that I'm typing this as opposed to having lunch is a counter example. (and one counter example is sufficient)
Of course it isn't. You will be more hungry in the future, so the value of lunch will continue to increase during the day. At some point you become so hungry that the value of lunch trumps all other valued ends and you stop and go eat - your actions continue to pursue other more valued ends until lunch takes priority. Logical. It is not the "same valued end" because in the future it is a more valued end. The value of lunch is not a constant.
I listened to my music CD therefore can not listen to it again? Oh, but "consumption" means destruction and what we have is 1+1 = 1+1 since what one has proven is that "goods that are destroyed is destroyed" but says nothing about "real" goods.
This is the same as capital equipment - everything degrades with use. No CD will last forever. No car will run forever. To print a page with a printer requires paper, the ink, and some fraction of the printer's ultimate lifespan ability to print documents before requiring service or breaking down. Same with a CD - there is some finite lifespan before it becomes scratched or the polymer breaks down and the data is lost and will need to be replaced. You can think of it as consuming one fraction of the CD's total plays.
More to the point, you've also consumed leisure time, in lieu of labour, to sit and listen to the CD. This is the largest good you've consumed in the duration. Also electricity, wear and tear on the player, etc.
Show nested quote +To challenge this, you must present an example of human action which is not "rational", or, in other (better) words which is not purposeful pursuit of valued ends using scarce means. I can not present this under the framework of axioms presented, but I can point out the flaws of the framework. Humans all die. Humans even kill themselves. So what is value? The definition here is circular because VALUE IS DEFINED BY ACTION! Because people do, therefore value is assigned. What this is, is a classic philosophical bait and switch trick that is all too common in philosophy, where on hijacks the meaning of a common word by a matter of indirect definition and while inferring the common meaning to support an argument. If all possible human action is "valuable", from suicide to murder, than it is but a useless word. --------------------------------- I can not tell you what is valuable since you yourself have to find it in yourself.
EXACTLY! Value is entirely subjective. Therefore, for you to assert that Austrian economics believes people obey rational principles when making decisions is wrong. Thank you. It is a useless word to use in the context, so let's not use it, and let's not make accusations about Austrians which include use of the word "rational" - it doesn't have any meaning.
My suggestion is to disbelieve whatever you are looking at, step back and imagine yourself believing another set of well developed philosophy (throwing everything of the old out of the window) and see if you can disprove it without bringing in outside concepts. Play around a bit and you'd understand the limits of logic.
This is not an argument.
Think about it this way. You are first of all a human being (over a thinking, rational or logical being). If humans are suppose to be logical beings with the same set of starting axioms, than there'd be no arguments in the universe since the result is self evident. (with enough processing power) Since that is not what humans do, there is no need to tie yourself to a logic frame work. It is fine to be the irrational "i don't know and i don't care" just as well. Frankly, the latter might be more useful starting point for arguments as logical frameworks are just tools.
This is not a rigorous approach - it is riddled with formal fallacies. Conflict is not a function of axioms - it is a function of scarcity. The simplest example of this is imagining a single axiom shared by two actors : "Red balls are valuable". Put in an environment with a finite number of red balls, these actors will engage in conflict over control of the red balls.
You can define value as this, i can define value as god's law or some other crap and one wouldn't be able to have a debate since fundamental disagreement on the axioms can not be argued by logic.
Why do you have to define value? I thought we settled that it is subjective and therefore un-knowable in any specific instance.
Show nested quote +There are innumerable reasons why economics is a poor discipline to tackle with empiricism. Axioms without observation is pure math. There is no functional discipline outside of empirical discipline. Axiomatic approaches result in models and only models and making it truth is just broken epistemology. Since there is no observation, there is no understanding of what is a "human", thus it would be perfectly valid to say: "In the neo-austrian view, ant action is always rational. Ant action is an actor's purposeful pursuit of valued ends with scarce means. ....*15 pages of inductions latter* and we thus prove that ownership and free trade is optimal for ants" Yes, it would be perfectly valid, since the specifics of human (or ant) capabilities and behavior is not necessary.
The differences between humans and the rest of the animal kingdom are actually explicitly addressed in opening chapters of most relevant works.
Page 2 - Man, Economy, and State:
There is no need to enter here into the difficult problem of animal behavior, from the lower organisms to the higher primates, which might be considered as on a borderline between purely reflexive and motivated behavior. At any rate, men can understand(as distinguished from merely observe) such behavior only in so far as they can impute to the animals motives that they can understand.
Thus, it cannot work for ants. This is also digression from the point.
As I said before about empiricism, I agree it is useful - but as a tool for finance and not as a tool for economics.
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On April 21 2009 23:48 SWPIGWANG wrote: 2.1 In every voluntary exchange, between two individuals both except to benefit at outset of exchange, otherwise they would not. Exchanges must have unequal value in the eyes of the participants and have opposite preference orders. Is this even a hypothesis and how would we go about testing it.
Answer: Testing is easy, just have self reports during/before the exchange, or one can engage in psychological experiments where one is offered a exchange which is then interrupted and a gift of either the good being offered in the exchange is given away without cost instead. (which should work if given decreasing marginal utility)
How can this statement be false: when exchange of items is of lesser importance than other factors, for example exchange of gifts which is often a formality. (just remember gifts your throw away....)
But the "other factors" are also part of the exchange. Why do you give a gift as a formality? What do you gain from it? You're not looking at the whole exchange.
What would be the consequences of not giving a formality gift? Perhaps a bad impression and damage to a business relationship. Obviously there are reasons why giving the gift is preferable - a valued end.
As for your exchangius interruptus experiment - you only demonstrate how completely absurd the notion of even testing this statement is. It's like quantum mechanics - simply in the act of observation you neccessarily distort the result. A laboratory experiment has little relevance on a person's life as well. It's like suggesting that human behaviour when playing monopoly should somehow be used to evaluate human behaviour in real society - as though there are no obvious logical flaws in interpreting results from fantasy play in a world with no consequences and applying them to the real world. There is no substitute for reality and time only passes once.
2.2 If we raise the minimum wage to 1million dollars, unemployment would rise:
How can this statement be false: when 1million isn't worth much, look at this 100billion dollar bill (it is not worth a third of a dollar) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fileimbabwe_Hyperinflation_2008_notes.jpg
Note that massive numbers is possible through normal inflation over long periods of time, but normally what happens is that new currency with smaller numbers are issued. Certainly, with another species better at math this may not be the case.
Alternative way this statement can be false: one operates under communism/hyper-monopoly which prints all the money! Or if we assume an adjustment period (which can be very short given fast systems) than one can imagine the velocity of money increasing sufficiently to increase the money supply to inflate it back to worthlessness.
...and so and so on.... now factors like relative purchasing power and no alternative employment structures can not be axiomically derived but observed. That said, this is a functionally absurd statement that has high trust value due to number of previous confirmations of the model.
He is speaking from the implicit position that the money supply does not expand. Regardless of the degree however, it is inconceivable that unemployment could not rise. A minimum wage will always cause less employment. A full treatment in Austrian theory would predict the emergence of a black market in employment in this case. In fact, as far as I know, all places with wage controls have employment black markets - because they force people who would otherwise willingly work not to.
2.3 If we quadrupole supply of money overnight, keeping all else constant there will be inflation: See the line above in section 2.2. Note this would be untrue if velocity of money if highly variable, and this is uncommon since this level of instability is far shorter than human adjustment cycles.
But again, you give no reasons as to why the velocity of money would suddenly slow down. That's the only way the statement can be false. If you woke up tomorrow and prices were the same as they were today, but your bank account was four times what it is now - you're saying that you wouldn't spend more? That the velocity of money would not rise? That others would not do the same? Perhaps we are talking about different planets here - different species of humans with which I am not familiar.
Do you really need an experiment to prove this? Is it really in question?
Shall we take a poll? Hey - everyone - If your bank account quadrupled overnight, would you spend more money?
It's ridiculous to think the answer would be no. Do you honestly think it's even in question?
2.3 Under-socialism without private ownership factors of production and then there is no prices for factors of production, one can not use cost accounting
Counter example: The state can still use money and markets as a internal control mechanism despite not having private ownership. One possible arrangement would be markets between government owned organizations. Another possibility would be the assignments of tradeable rights (right to use land, rights to build stuff and so on) and rents out of factors of production but still retain ultimate ownership.
You still create the allocation problem, the distribution problem, etc, etc.
See Chapter XXVI: The Impossibility of Economic Calculation Under Socialism.
In particular, Section 5 : The Quasi-Market, addresses the typical refutation you provide.
Solve those problems and you will have my attention.
2.4 Decreasing marginal utility and fulfillment of the highest utility demand first.
Counter example: Network effect systems. For example, phones. The first phone is of low utility while every extra phone today have much higher utility due to all the other phones that exist. The same is with airports, internet access and so on. Hell, windows is valuable only because there is so damn many windows computer around.... (thus with it, IT people and supporting software written for the platform)
Why are we suddenly everybody? When did we stop being us, here?
This is a theory of humans - the individual.
If you have two identical mobile phones is it the same thing if one of the two is stolen, leaving you with only one phone, as compared to the case where your only mobile phone is stolen, leaving you with none?
You are not interpreting this correctly.
2.5 Things like Pythagoras theorem or a ball of red and non-red. They are analytic propositions do not need to be proven. (but do not necessarily say anything about reality, like 14 dimensional non-Euclidean geometry as opposed to planar triangles)
Now this is getting absurd.
4. Argument: Other economists (that aren't Austrian school) run finance and make money, but they aren't the richest people on earth and there are other rich people that don't use models and thus they don't count.
My counter argument: Well, if we see richer Austrians than they'd have a point. Economic theory is not perfect and economists make money mainly out of market imperfections which is finite.
But Austrians don't claim anything in the realm of finance.
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On April 21 2009 23:48 SWPIGWANG wrote:Someone posted "Professor Hans-Hermann Hoppe: Praxeology: The Austrian Method" video on the Austrian method, and I'll answer his points here. 1. Popper does not prove his own philosophy as correct unless you take its propositions as correct to begin with: That is true with all philosophy as all of them assert correctness by simply claiming it or applying circular logic. 2. Absurdity examples where things don't have to be prove and can not be disproven: Now first of all, I should note that in strictly empirical science, many statements are still "functionally absurd" like claiming that falling from a tall building won't result in death on impact. In the strictest popperian sense, this is not an fundamentally absurd claim, but it is functionally absurd due to amount of falsifications involved. This points to a probabilistic view of knowledge which he glanced over. Now look at his examples: 2.1 In every voluntary exchange, between two individuals both except to benefit at outset of exchange, otherwise they would not. Exchanges must have unequal value in the eyes of the participants and have opposite preference orders. Is this even a hypothesis and how would we go about testing it. Answer: Testing is easy, just have self reports during/before the exchange, or one can engage in psychological experiments where one is offered a exchange which is then interrupted and a gift of either the good being offered in the exchange is given away without cost instead. (which should work if given decreasing marginal utility) How can this statement be false: when exchange of items is of lesser importance than other factors, for example exchange of gifts which is often a formality. (just remember gifts your throw away....) 2.2 If we raise the minimum wage to 1million dollars, unemployment would rise: How can this statement be false: when 1million isn't worth much, look at this 100billion dollar bill (it is not worth a third of a dollar) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File  imbabwe_Hyperinflation_2008_notes.jpg Note that massive numbers is possible through normal inflation over long periods of time, but normally what happens is that new currency with smaller numbers are issued. Certainly, with another species better at math this may not be the case. Alternative way this statement can be false: one operates under communism/hyper-monopoly which prints all the money! Or if we assume an adjustment period (which can be very short given fast systems) than one can imagine the velocity of money increasing sufficiently to increase the money supply to inflate it back to worthlessness. ...and so and so on.... now factors like relative purchasing power and no alternative employment structures can not be axiomically derived but observed. That said, this is a functionally absurd statement that has high trust value due to number of previous confirmations of the model. 2.3 If we quadrupole supply of money overnight, keeping all else constant there will be inflation: See the line above in section 2.2. Note this would be untrue if velocity of money if highly variable, and this is uncommon since this level of instability is far shorter than human adjustment cycles. 2.3 Under-socialism without private ownership factors of production and then there is no prices for factors of production, one can not use cost accounting Counter example: The state can still use money and markets as a internal control mechanism despite not having private ownership. One possible arrangement would be markets between government owned organizations. Another possibility would be the assignments of tradeable rights (right to use land, rights to build stuff and so on) and rents out of factors of production but still retain ultimate ownership. 2.4 Decreasing marginal utility and fulfillment of the highest utility demand first. Counter example: Network effect systems. For example, phones. The first phone is of low utility while every extra phone today have much higher utility due to all the other phones that exist. The same is with airports, internet access and so on. Hell, windows is valuable only because there is so damn many windows computer around.... (thus with it, IT people and supporting software written for the platform) 2.5 Things like Pythagoras theorem or a ball of red and non-red. They are analytic propositions do not need to be proven. (but do not necessarily say anything about reality, like 14 dimensional non-Euclidean geometry as opposed to planar triangles) 3. Claim: Empirical science is useless in social science since predictions are tainted by knowledge: Now all things are effected by knowledge, and those are indeed can not be predicted. That is the limit to knowledge due to observation horizon and thats all. 4. Argument: Other economists (that aren't Austrian school) run finance and make money, but they aren't the richest people on earth and there are other rich people that don't use models and thus they don't count. My counter argument: Well, if we see richer Austrians than they'd have a point. Economic theory is not perfect and economists make money mainly out of market imperfections which is finite.
SWPIGWANG:
1. I don't know where your understanding of what you call empiricism comes from -- and I don't know if I understand what you mean by it. However, some of your statements lead me to conclude that you have not read some essays that bear on the matter. I will, at first, only mention Quine's Two Dogmas of Empiricism.
2. You wrote: "Popper does not prove his own philosophy as correct unless you take its propositions as correct to begin with: That is true with all philosophy as all of them assert correctness by simply claiming it or applying circular logic."
a) Then this is true of empiricsm as well b) Aristotle's discussion of his Law of Non-Contradiction shows why the statement you made does in fact rest on a proposition that is CERTAIN. c) "All philosophy" Where the hell is this claim coming from?
3. You wrote: "They are analytic propositions do not need to be proven. (but do not necessarily say anything about reality, like 14 dimensional non-Euclidean geometry as opposed to planar triangles)"
a) See "Two Dogmas" Reference above. Seems to me you are simply invoking the logical postivist view of Kant's analytic synthetic dichotomy. Please correct me if I'm wrong here.
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Cayman Islands24199 Posts
none of that has direct bearing on the status of the austrian stuff. the philosophy is enough for nonphilosophy people, don't see the reason for your complaint really
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