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Holy shit what happened to the US Politics thread I used to know and love
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United States43259 Posts
On November 10 2017 12:21 Liquid`Drone wrote:Show nested quote +On November 10 2017 12:14 KwarK wrote:On November 10 2017 11:48 Liquid`Drone wrote: isn't igne clearly saying that once consent has been given it is assumed to be continuously given until retracted? not that 'you can always assume that you have consent to do whatever unless told otherwise'? Hard to tell with Igne. Also it's not clear what he means by consent given. Consent to give a blowjob doesn't imply consent to sex etc. And even for a single act, it's still a case of "make a reasonable judgement based on context and cues". If your partner starts freezing or being disassociative the reasonable judgement would be that something has gone wrong and you should check in with them. It's not the biggest of consent fouls if consent isn't explicitly withdrawn but the person stopped wanting it, that's more of a good faith fuckup. But it's still something that does happen and you should be aware of. Best to continue to make moment to moment judgements rather than assuming. Or if he's referring to relationships, same principle. Context and cues. The context and cues for consent for someone you're in a sexual relationship with will be very different than they would be for a stranger and you're using your judgement far more, but you're still not assuming. No it's pretty easy to understand what he meant by the context, and it being igne. Something to the effect that 'if you have established that it's okay for you to kiss your wife when you feel like it, or grab her ass when walking past her, or put your head in her boobs during hugs, or grabbing her boobs when spooning', then it's okay to continue doing any of those things until she shows discomfort with one of them. But if you've been doing it for a while, you can assume it's okay that you continue. He wasn't saying that 'because you got a blowjob once, you can demand it whenever' and if you were to assume anything to that effect it would be you being deliberately obtuse. The kissing and grabbing etc you're describing would for me fall under reasonable judgement based on context and cues. You're not just assuming that it's okay because you did it before or because you're in a relationship, you're applying judgement (for example it might not be okay if they're in a shitty mood).
I didn't say anything about if you got a blowjob once you're entitled to it whenever, that wasn't any component of my post. I wasn't sure what he meant so I covered general consent in relationships (what you're talking about), limited consent during sex in case he was talking about assuming broader consent, and how consent still doesn't relieve an obligation to continually apply judgement in case he was talking about sex. I didn't say anything about that though, that wasn't a thing I thought he meant so I didn't respond to it.
Consent is an active state, you're making active judgements based upon your best information and continually refreshing that. Not always consciously, sometimes things will just not feel right, but you're not assuming.
That's not specific to established couples either, it's the same process of making your best judgement if you're deciding to go for a kiss on a first date. The cues and context change but the process doesn't.
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Norway28712 Posts
When you responded to his earlier post with Dude, no. Just no. Like you are objectively wrong here that consent is a state that is assumed until told otherwise. If you fuck people based on that principle and you try to argue that in front of a judge you will end up in prison. Assuming consent is how you end up naked and masturbating in front of a group of women who really aren't into it. Non consent is always the default state from which consent is the deviance, not the other way around. it sounds like you are thinking that Igne was arguing that he thinks he has consent to fuck girls until they tell him he can't. It might be a possible way of interpreting his literal words, but context should have cued you in on how it clearly wasn't what he intended.
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On November 10 2017 12:41 KwarK wrote:Show nested quote +On November 10 2017 12:21 Liquid`Drone wrote:On November 10 2017 12:14 KwarK wrote:On November 10 2017 11:48 Liquid`Drone wrote: isn't igne clearly saying that once consent has been given it is assumed to be continuously given until retracted? not that 'you can always assume that you have consent to do whatever unless told otherwise'? Hard to tell with Igne. Also it's not clear what he means by consent given. Consent to give a blowjob doesn't imply consent to sex etc. And even for a single act, it's still a case of "make a reasonable judgement based on context and cues". If your partner starts freezing or being disassociative the reasonable judgement would be that something has gone wrong and you should check in with them. It's not the biggest of consent fouls if consent isn't explicitly withdrawn but the person stopped wanting it, that's more of a good faith fuckup. But it's still something that does happen and you should be aware of. Best to continue to make moment to moment judgements rather than assuming. Or if he's referring to relationships, same principle. Context and cues. The context and cues for consent for someone you're in a sexual relationship with will be very different than they would be for a stranger and you're using your judgement far more, but you're still not assuming. No it's pretty easy to understand what he meant by the context, and it being igne. Something to the effect that 'if you have established that it's okay for you to kiss your wife when you feel like it, or grab her ass when walking past her, or put your head in her boobs during hugs, or grabbing her boobs when spooning', then it's okay to continue doing any of those things until she shows discomfort with one of them. But if you've been doing it for a while, you can assume it's okay that you continue. He wasn't saying that 'because you got a blowjob once, you can demand it whenever' and if you were to assume anything to that effect it would be you being deliberately obtuse. The kissing and grabbing etc you're describing would for me fall under reasonable judgement based on context and cues. You're not just assuming that it's okay because you did it before or because you're in a relationship, you're applying judgement (for example it might not be okay if they're in a shitty mood). I didn't say anything about if you got a blowjob once you're entitled to it whenever, that wasn't any component of my post. I wasn't sure what he meant so I covered general consent in relationships (what you're talking about), limited consent during sex in case he was talking about assuming broader consent, and how consent still doesn't relieve an obligation to continually apply judgement in case he was talking about sex. I didn't say anything about that though, that wasn't a thing I thought he meant so I didn't respond to it. Consent is an active state, you're making active judgements based upon your best information and continually refreshing that. Not always consciously, sometimes things will just not feel right, but you're not assuming. That's not specific to established couples either, it's the same process of making your best judgement if you're deciding to go for a kiss on a first date. The cues and context change but the process doesn't.
Cues and context don't add up to a formula, and past history and expectations, which are always a matter of interpretation, are part of the judgment process (I'm trying to stay away from the legal, contractual language you find so antithetical to consent). There's always an assumed remainder. Like when you touch your partner from behind to greet them in a crowded party, or when you pull them out of the way of someone trying to get past them in an aisle, or when you walk over and put your body next to them after a long day. The consent there is never explicit, and its not definite. Yet you assume they will consent based on prior consent, cues, and context. "Cues and context" are a form of "body language" which is a form of communication that can coincidentally be used to negative consent. It's funny that the more we plumb the depths here the more complicated this all sounds, and yet just a few pages ago you were saying it's "really not all that complex."
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On November 10 2017 12:39 Ryzel wrote: Holy shit what happened to the US Politics thread I used to know and love This is actually one of the more rational discussions to have occurred in the past year
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On November 10 2017 12:39 Ryzel wrote: Holy shit what happened to the US Politics thread I used to know and love From earlier
On November 10 2017 09:54 Plansix wrote: Drone, I've never had to ask a girl if I could kiss her. I've asked if other stuff was cool, mostly because its just way easier. The reason I brought up kissing on the first date was because this thread when the classic route of:
1: Sexual assault is covered in the media 2: Someone asks "But how can I make out with girls if they will all accuse me of sexual assault?" 3: People who cracked that complex code fill everyone in 4: Gamer nerds demand an If-When Flow Chart for how to know if its ok to make out because human intimacy is scary --IgnE has had us trapped in stage four for hours as he slowly works through the semantics of what is assault, consent and if it can or cannot be a written contract
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On November 10 2017 11:08 IgnE wrote: one way to think about fifty shades of grey and ana's mental resistance is that her mental doubt/disgust/disinclination is entirely performative for the readers' benefits. she never explicitly revokes consent and so within the world of the book, nothing is going wrong, consent is given, ana is a smart young independent pwrson capable of consent, etc. her mental soliloquys about how shes not sure she wants to do this just play the role of creating a safe space, where we all know that rape and coercion are bad. so the reader can experience the fantasy and place themself comfortably in ana's position while holding in suspense the objective reality so to speak of her reservations.
thats how fantsy operates. the fantasy has to achieve a reality and yet still be safe. imagine the book with total consent. no one would be interested. no one wants to watch a kink scene as an objective observer keeping in mind that consent is always totally given and that the whole scene is really exactly what the submissive wants. it only functions by holding this consent just out of mental reach while still being accessible if anything starts to get out of hand. the book would have been a complete failure if ana were a real person wholly invested at all times in the bdsm.
One point I didn't make explicit here is that the books probably also wouldn't have had as much success as they did if he had actually raped her. That's why I said the explicit consent was central to the book.
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Do you like conservative bad faith arguments? Are you into nonsensical post-reality partisan point scoring? This will be the new talking point on Moore going forwards. The Democrats are the real rapists. DJT imported their rapist ideas. And all the raping was technically done by Democrats since Moore was a Democrat back in the early 80s.
Spoilerd Twitter quotes, they good + Show Spoiler +
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On November 10 2017 12:39 Ryzel wrote: Holy shit what happened to the US Politics thread I used to know and love
No idea, I couldn't follow any more when the deep analysis of fifty shades started
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The problem transcends parties and politicial leanings. It is disgusting that anyone is trying to turn this into a "your side is worse" argument.
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United States43259 Posts
On November 10 2017 12:58 IgnE wrote:Show nested quote +On November 10 2017 12:41 KwarK wrote:On November 10 2017 12:21 Liquid`Drone wrote:On November 10 2017 12:14 KwarK wrote:On November 10 2017 11:48 Liquid`Drone wrote: isn't igne clearly saying that once consent has been given it is assumed to be continuously given until retracted? not that 'you can always assume that you have consent to do whatever unless told otherwise'? Hard to tell with Igne. Also it's not clear what he means by consent given. Consent to give a blowjob doesn't imply consent to sex etc. And even for a single act, it's still a case of "make a reasonable judgement based on context and cues". If your partner starts freezing or being disassociative the reasonable judgement would be that something has gone wrong and you should check in with them. It's not the biggest of consent fouls if consent isn't explicitly withdrawn but the person stopped wanting it, that's more of a good faith fuckup. But it's still something that does happen and you should be aware of. Best to continue to make moment to moment judgements rather than assuming. Or if he's referring to relationships, same principle. Context and cues. The context and cues for consent for someone you're in a sexual relationship with will be very different than they would be for a stranger and you're using your judgement far more, but you're still not assuming. No it's pretty easy to understand what he meant by the context, and it being igne. Something to the effect that 'if you have established that it's okay for you to kiss your wife when you feel like it, or grab her ass when walking past her, or put your head in her boobs during hugs, or grabbing her boobs when spooning', then it's okay to continue doing any of those things until she shows discomfort with one of them. But if you've been doing it for a while, you can assume it's okay that you continue. He wasn't saying that 'because you got a blowjob once, you can demand it whenever' and if you were to assume anything to that effect it would be you being deliberately obtuse. The kissing and grabbing etc you're describing would for me fall under reasonable judgement based on context and cues. You're not just assuming that it's okay because you did it before or because you're in a relationship, you're applying judgement (for example it might not be okay if they're in a shitty mood). I didn't say anything about if you got a blowjob once you're entitled to it whenever, that wasn't any component of my post. I wasn't sure what he meant so I covered general consent in relationships (what you're talking about), limited consent during sex in case he was talking about assuming broader consent, and how consent still doesn't relieve an obligation to continually apply judgement in case he was talking about sex. I didn't say anything about that though, that wasn't a thing I thought he meant so I didn't respond to it. Consent is an active state, you're making active judgements based upon your best information and continually refreshing that. Not always consciously, sometimes things will just not feel right, but you're not assuming. That's not specific to established couples either, it's the same process of making your best judgement if you're deciding to go for a kiss on a first date. The cues and context change but the process doesn't. Cues and context don't add up to a formula, and past history and expectations, which are always a matter of interpretation, are part of the judgment process (I'm trying to stay away from the legal, contractual language you find so antithetical to consent). There's always an assumed remainder. Like when you touch your partner from behind to greet them in a crowded party, or when you pull them out of the way of someone trying to get past them in an aisle, or when you walk over and put your body next to them after a long day. The consent there is never explicit, and its not definite. Yet you assume they will consent based on prior consent, cues, and context. "Cues and context" are a form of "body language" which is a form of communication that can coincidentally be used to negative consent. It's funny that the more we plumb the depths here the more complicated this all sounds, and yet just a few pages ago you were saying it's "really not all that complex." I don't require you to use imprecise language, if you think the problem I had with the idea of a binding consent contract was the legalese then you've missed the point. The entire idea of a consent contract is incompatible with how consent works, consent cannot be obligated, nor does it extend beyond the moment it is given in.
I still don't think it's especially complicated either. The kind of cues and context change but the system remains the same. If you have a reasonable certainty then go for it, if not, get more information, one easy method of which is just asking. That's the point at which asking for consent becomes relevant.
The core of the issue is that some people, like Spacey for example, grab other people's junk and then insist that they thought it was okay. The people grabbing junk and the people kissing their wives are not the same group of people, there isn't overlap there. The second group make an informed judgement that they have obtained consent, and they do so correctly which is why they're not constantly getting in trouble for doing so. The "assumption" as you call it isn't unfounded, it's like assuming that the sun will come up. The first group, in my opinion, get that it's not okay but let's take them at their word. In their case the assumption is unfounded, like assuming that the sun won't come up. They then play this dumb game where they demand that we spell out exactly why what they did was wrong and why what a husband and wife do is okay.
Asking for consent is seeking additional evidence as part of forming your judgement about whether a state of consent exists. In the case of the first group they're making a really wild and unfounded assumption and therefore their failure to seek additional evidence before acting on their assumption is a fuckup. They knew, or should have known, that it wasn't a reasonable assumption that it'd be cool if they got naked and started masturbating and that before they made that leap they would require some more evidence. In the case of the second group, it's way less important.
The argument that if we start requiring Weinstein to get explicit consent before grabbing women then we'll have to do it with our own wives just doesn't follow. The assumption, as you insist upon calling it, is not the same in both cases. In one it is an unfounded claim by an individual with a clear interest in maintaining the claim, in the other it is built on prior data and current evidence. Once you get into the differences between the quality of assumptions it falls apart. And that gets us back to our starting point, that non consent rather than consent is the default assumption. That if you have a reasonable certainty that you have obtained consent, which the second group does, then that's fine. But without that body of evidence you should assume the inverse, that the state of non consent exists. And given that it's so incredibly easy to check by simply asking, people who act without sufficient certainty and get it wrong should be held accountable for their fuckups.
The entire issue is fairly absurd, as I keep saying, because it's built on a hypothetical where if we were to start blaming sexual predators for failing to ask for consent then we'd have to start blaming everyone. It's nonsense. There aren't millions of people who did nothing wrong getting arrested for failing to properly document consent.
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On November 10 2017 03:34 KwarK wrote:Show nested quote +On November 10 2017 03:01 mozoku wrote:On November 10 2017 00:04 KwarK wrote:On November 09 2017 23:35 Danglars wrote:On November 09 2017 23:11 Liquid`Drone wrote: When the cutoff is at $11 million for a household, clearly you can still accumulate generational wealth. It's not like they take 100% beyond that either. (Tbh, I'd personally be kinda fine with that. :D Or it should probably also depend on how many beneficiaries there are, but I don't see the fairness or benefit from any individual being given more than $5 million for 'being in the same family as someone'. So maybe rather than calculating it based on the value of the estate, have the cutoff be decided by how much each recipient gets. )
I don't see the societal benefit from individuals being billionaires. I get 'they invest and create jobs', but I've never seen any compelling evidence that one individual holding 1 billion creates more, better jobs than 200 individuals holding $5 million does. (Or that there being one company valued at $1 billion is better for the economy than 200 companies worth $5 million). All the bipartisan talk about 'small business being the backbone of american economy' really doesn't seem to match up with policy geared towards benefiting small businesses (which must, naturally, come at the expense of big business). The way I see it, it's impossible to accumulate $1 billion without having massively underpaid workers helping your company thrive, and while I prefer methods like increased worker ownership or limiting CEO pay to X amounts of entry level pay over taxation as a means of redistribution, if you do allow CEOs to make 600 times entry level pay then the redistribution must be done through other means. And if people aren't taxed sufficiently during their life times, then it has to happen at death.
Everybody idealizes the meritocracy. But a meritocracy is incompatible with an aristocracy, the US can't pretend to be the former while enacting policies that benefit the latter. The wealth you've earned and has been taxed that the government allows you to give to your children and grandchildren ... Examining how much property individuals attain in terms of net societal benefit as compared to pay cap ... catching up on presumed inadequate taxation over their lives ... allowing CEOs to make X redistribution must be done. I shudder to think you're probably talking in good faith here. No individuals but only servants of societal benefit, no unjust policies but only the ends justify the means, and so transparently the politics of envy but without attendant shame. I really hate to think this may be what we're headed towards. It's the social contract that binds us together. If a man lived on an island by himself and all his possessions were crafted by his own hand I wouldn't see any reason to tax him. But within a capitalist society every rich man has become rich through the redistribution of labour from others to them. We allow capitalism to redistribute wealth because it's functionally effective for allocating resources within society but there is nothing natural about, say, land ownership. If a field in Texas is discovered to have oil underneath it it does not rationally follow that all Americans should have to collectively make the owner of the field a billionaire in order to make their commute to work. You need to recognize that the wealth capitalism awards you is simply the product of an artificial system that was created by men to help decide whether ipods or zunes were better. The fact that an employer is willing to pay you $100,000 for your labour does not mean that the intrinsic value of your labour is $100,000, it's just a bullshit number that the system produced. If you get rid of society none of this labour has any intrinsic value, it's simply a product of a set of rules we created. You're trying to combine two completely separate concepts, the individual and capitalist society and it doesn't work. You can't have capitalism on an island with one occupant. Taxation is part of the same book of rules that capitalism comes from, and neither makes any sense from an individualist perspective. I don't know how you're defining "intrinsic" value, but if an employer is willing to pay me $100,000, the market value of my labor is $100,000 (assuming efficient/competitive markets). If the market values my labor more than someone else's, it follows that (again, assuming efficient/competitive markets) society's best estimate of my labor's value is more than that other person's. Should not the fruits of society's labor be distributed, in principle, proportionally to those who created it? Especially given that, for most people, the market value of the labor is--to a pretty large degree--under their control during their lifetime? You can argue that heirs to large fortunes didn't really create the value that their fortune's create (their parents did) and I think that's fair (though there are counterarguments in favor of the estate tax as well), or that economic mobility isn't possible (I disagree), but to act like the only basis for how society's wealth should be distributed is the tyranny of the masses (who are writing the "book of rules" you're referencing--at least in a democracy) doesn't have any moral or ethical basis in favor of it. The share of the wealth you get and the share of the wealth you created aren't well correlated. That's pretty much the point of capitalism, the underlying mechanism that makes capitalism work is people attempting to do arbitrage to take advantage of that discrepancy. If you break it down to its very simplest village level bartering, the objective is to find something that you can produce in an hour that you can trade for firewood that took two hours to chop. You perform one hour of labour, and yet you get two hours of stuff. The mechanism relies upon disproportionate rewards to redistribute labour and direct economic activity. Clearly whatever the guy in the village was doing with his hour was the right thing to do, and other villagers may follow him until an equilibrium where 1 hour = 1 hour is restored. Arbitrage to exploit disproportionate rewards between what you contribute and what you get is the engine that drives capitalism. By the time we apply it on a modern global perspective the difference is staggering, a ratio of thousands of manhours to one in many cases. These differences are reinforced by artificial impositions upon the ability of many people to engage in arbitrage, such as denying Mexicans the ability to sell their labour in America, and by exploitation grandfathered in by the capital class. However, the basic engine remains the same, the economic systems offers participants in the economy disproportionate rewards for directing their labour in certain ways. The disproportionate outcome needs to exist for our society to work. We need doctors to get more than grocers to keep kids in school. But it doesn't follow that what the system outputs is what you deserve, or what you earned. It's certainly not what you created, any American can tell that the manhours of labour they consume on any given day greatly exceed the manhours of labour they performed. Deserve and earned are subjective moral concepts that aren't relevant to the mechanism, what you get is what you get. This is literally nonsense. I barely know where to begin.
Suppose an hour's worth of labor chopping firewood produces $1 of firewood. The new guy creates $2/hr with whatever he's doing. He's twice as productive. If chooses to work the same amount of time, he gets twice as much stuff. That's literally the definition of proportional. How that's supposed to be disproportionate, I have no idea.
The share of the wealth you get and the share of the wealth you created aren't well correlated. ??? I'm pretty sure fast-food workers are creating much less wealth than software engineers, successful investors, etc. I literally can't even imagine how society would exist if this statement were true. Why would capitalism even be efficient if this statement were true? What is your definition of "well correlated"? 0.99999999999999999??
It's certainly not what you created, any American can tell that the manhours of labour they consume on any given day greatly exceed the manhours of labour they performed. I'm not sure this is true at all. In fact, I'd lean towards not true if anything. Ever heard of an economy of scale? I work at a mega-scale tech company. I work 40-50 hrs/week, but my work influences thousands of people directly, and affects millions indirectly. Hell, the marginal cost of someone consuming my work is practically zero. Likewise, the marginal cost (in terms of other's time) of most of the stuff I consume is practically zero. That's how automation works, and is why we're fabulously wealthy compared to several hundred years ago.
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United States43259 Posts
On November 10 2017 13:50 mozoku wrote:Show nested quote +On November 10 2017 03:34 KwarK wrote:On November 10 2017 03:01 mozoku wrote:On November 10 2017 00:04 KwarK wrote:On November 09 2017 23:35 Danglars wrote:On November 09 2017 23:11 Liquid`Drone wrote: When the cutoff is at $11 million for a household, clearly you can still accumulate generational wealth. It's not like they take 100% beyond that either. (Tbh, I'd personally be kinda fine with that. :D Or it should probably also depend on how many beneficiaries there are, but I don't see the fairness or benefit from any individual being given more than $5 million for 'being in the same family as someone'. So maybe rather than calculating it based on the value of the estate, have the cutoff be decided by how much each recipient gets. )
I don't see the societal benefit from individuals being billionaires. I get 'they invest and create jobs', but I've never seen any compelling evidence that one individual holding 1 billion creates more, better jobs than 200 individuals holding $5 million does. (Or that there being one company valued at $1 billion is better for the economy than 200 companies worth $5 million). All the bipartisan talk about 'small business being the backbone of american economy' really doesn't seem to match up with policy geared towards benefiting small businesses (which must, naturally, come at the expense of big business). The way I see it, it's impossible to accumulate $1 billion without having massively underpaid workers helping your company thrive, and while I prefer methods like increased worker ownership or limiting CEO pay to X amounts of entry level pay over taxation as a means of redistribution, if you do allow CEOs to make 600 times entry level pay then the redistribution must be done through other means. And if people aren't taxed sufficiently during their life times, then it has to happen at death.
Everybody idealizes the meritocracy. But a meritocracy is incompatible with an aristocracy, the US can't pretend to be the former while enacting policies that benefit the latter. The wealth you've earned and has been taxed that the government allows you to give to your children and grandchildren ... Examining how much property individuals attain in terms of net societal benefit as compared to pay cap ... catching up on presumed inadequate taxation over their lives ... allowing CEOs to make X redistribution must be done. I shudder to think you're probably talking in good faith here. No individuals but only servants of societal benefit, no unjust policies but only the ends justify the means, and so transparently the politics of envy but without attendant shame. I really hate to think this may be what we're headed towards. It's the social contract that binds us together. If a man lived on an island by himself and all his possessions were crafted by his own hand I wouldn't see any reason to tax him. But within a capitalist society every rich man has become rich through the redistribution of labour from others to them. We allow capitalism to redistribute wealth because it's functionally effective for allocating resources within society but there is nothing natural about, say, land ownership. If a field in Texas is discovered to have oil underneath it it does not rationally follow that all Americans should have to collectively make the owner of the field a billionaire in order to make their commute to work. You need to recognize that the wealth capitalism awards you is simply the product of an artificial system that was created by men to help decide whether ipods or zunes were better. The fact that an employer is willing to pay you $100,000 for your labour does not mean that the intrinsic value of your labour is $100,000, it's just a bullshit number that the system produced. If you get rid of society none of this labour has any intrinsic value, it's simply a product of a set of rules we created. You're trying to combine two completely separate concepts, the individual and capitalist society and it doesn't work. You can't have capitalism on an island with one occupant. Taxation is part of the same book of rules that capitalism comes from, and neither makes any sense from an individualist perspective. I don't know how you're defining "intrinsic" value, but if an employer is willing to pay me $100,000, the market value of my labor is $100,000 (assuming efficient/competitive markets). If the market values my labor more than someone else's, it follows that (again, assuming efficient/competitive markets) society's best estimate of my labor's value is more than that other person's. Should not the fruits of society's labor be distributed, in principle, proportionally to those who created it? Especially given that, for most people, the market value of the labor is--to a pretty large degree--under their control during their lifetime? You can argue that heirs to large fortunes didn't really create the value that their fortune's create (their parents did) and I think that's fair (though there are counterarguments in favor of the estate tax as well), or that economic mobility isn't possible (I disagree), but to act like the only basis for how society's wealth should be distributed is the tyranny of the masses (who are writing the "book of rules" you're referencing--at least in a democracy) doesn't have any moral or ethical basis in favor of it. The share of the wealth you get and the share of the wealth you created aren't well correlated. That's pretty much the point of capitalism, the underlying mechanism that makes capitalism work is people attempting to do arbitrage to take advantage of that discrepancy. If you break it down to its very simplest village level bartering, the objective is to find something that you can produce in an hour that you can trade for firewood that took two hours to chop. You perform one hour of labour, and yet you get two hours of stuff. The mechanism relies upon disproportionate rewards to redistribute labour and direct economic activity. Clearly whatever the guy in the village was doing with his hour was the right thing to do, and other villagers may follow him until an equilibrium where 1 hour = 1 hour is restored. Arbitrage to exploit disproportionate rewards between what you contribute and what you get is the engine that drives capitalism. By the time we apply it on a modern global perspective the difference is staggering, a ratio of thousands of manhours to one in many cases. These differences are reinforced by artificial impositions upon the ability of many people to engage in arbitrage, such as denying Mexicans the ability to sell their labour in America, and by exploitation grandfathered in by the capital class. However, the basic engine remains the same, the economic systems offers participants in the economy disproportionate rewards for directing their labour in certain ways. The disproportionate outcome needs to exist for our society to work. We need doctors to get more than grocers to keep kids in school. But it doesn't follow that what the system outputs is what you deserve, or what you earned. It's certainly not what you created, any American can tell that the manhours of labour they consume on any given day greatly exceed the manhours of labour they performed. Deserve and earned are subjective moral concepts that aren't relevant to the mechanism, what you get is what you get. This is literally nonsense. I barely know where to begin. Suppose an hour's worth of labor chopping firewood produces $1 of firewood. The new guy creates $2/hr with whatever he's doing. He's twice as productive. If chooses to work the same amount of time, he gets twice as much stuff. That's literally the definition of proportional. How that's supposed to be disproportionate, I have no idea. Show nested quote +The share of the wealth you get and the share of the wealth you created aren't well correlated. ??? I'm pretty sure fast-food workers are creating much less wealth than software engineers, successful investors, etc. I literally can't even imagine how society would exist if this statement were true. Why would capitalism even be efficient if this statement were true? What is your definition of "well correlated"? 0.99999999999999999?? Show nested quote +It's certainly not what you created, any American can tell that the manhours of labour they consume on any given day greatly exceed the manhours of labour they performed. I'm not sure this is true at all. In fact, I'd lean towards not true if anything. Ever heard of an economy of scale? I work at a mega-scale tech company. I work 40-50 hrs/week, but my work influences thousands of people directly, and affects millions indirectly. Hell, the marginal cost of someone consuming my work is practically zero. Likewise, the marginal cost (in terms of other's time) of most of the stuff I consume is practically zero. That's how automation works, and is why we're fabulously wealthy compared to several hundred years ago. Why is the bartering village using dollars? Remove the dollars, try again.
What objective system of valuation are you using to show that you're producing more value than the fast food worker from your day? Remembering of course that you're already justifying the getting more money than them by the fact that you create more value so you cannot complete the circle and use the more money to prove the greater value.
If you work 40-50 hours a week then your manhours are 40-50 hours a week, regardless of how many people you influence. Even with economies of scale you're consuming more than that. The equation for this is actually super simple. The amount you spent (if we want to get technical this should be expensed and we should expense shit like car purchases and taxes over time to account for those) divided by the average hourly wage of the people who produced it will give you a rough estimate of the manhours you consumed. I'll give you a hint here, globally most people don't earn much hourly. Automation isn't relevant to this at all unless you think the machines are drawing a paycheck. The money you spend goes to someone somewhere at whatever hourly rate they make.
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Let's take a moment to compare and contrast how Democrats defended Weiner vs how Republicans are defending Moore.
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The Times article about it and Alabama voters saying it's cool for him to date 14 year olds is something else. It is amazing f that 2017 has this much gas left.
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On November 10 2017 13:54 Mohdoo wrote: Let's take a moment to compare and contrast how Democrats defended Weiner vs how Republicans are defending Moore.
One ignored an embarrassing politician until he ran himself out of relevancy and the other is being told to quit if the stories are true? This isn't really a trail any Democrat would want to go down, and after Trump, no Republican either.
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On November 10 2017 14:40 Introvert wrote:Show nested quote +On November 10 2017 13:54 Mohdoo wrote: Let's take a moment to compare and contrast how Democrats defended Weiner vs how Republicans are defending Moore. One ignored an embarrassing politician until he ran himself out of relevancy and the other is being told to quit if the stories are true? This isn't really a trail any Democrat would want to go down, and after Trump, no Republican either. Did any major left wing networks defend Weiner like fox is Moore?
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On November 10 2017 13:52 KwarK wrote:Show nested quote +On November 10 2017 13:50 mozoku wrote:On November 10 2017 03:34 KwarK wrote:On November 10 2017 03:01 mozoku wrote:On November 10 2017 00:04 KwarK wrote:On November 09 2017 23:35 Danglars wrote:On November 09 2017 23:11 Liquid`Drone wrote: When the cutoff is at $11 million for a household, clearly you can still accumulate generational wealth. It's not like they take 100% beyond that either. (Tbh, I'd personally be kinda fine with that. :D Or it should probably also depend on how many beneficiaries there are, but I don't see the fairness or benefit from any individual being given more than $5 million for 'being in the same family as someone'. So maybe rather than calculating it based on the value of the estate, have the cutoff be decided by how much each recipient gets. )
I don't see the societal benefit from individuals being billionaires. I get 'they invest and create jobs', but I've never seen any compelling evidence that one individual holding 1 billion creates more, better jobs than 200 individuals holding $5 million does. (Or that there being one company valued at $1 billion is better for the economy than 200 companies worth $5 million). All the bipartisan talk about 'small business being the backbone of american economy' really doesn't seem to match up with policy geared towards benefiting small businesses (which must, naturally, come at the expense of big business). The way I see it, it's impossible to accumulate $1 billion without having massively underpaid workers helping your company thrive, and while I prefer methods like increased worker ownership or limiting CEO pay to X amounts of entry level pay over taxation as a means of redistribution, if you do allow CEOs to make 600 times entry level pay then the redistribution must be done through other means. And if people aren't taxed sufficiently during their life times, then it has to happen at death.
Everybody idealizes the meritocracy. But a meritocracy is incompatible with an aristocracy, the US can't pretend to be the former while enacting policies that benefit the latter. The wealth you've earned and has been taxed that the government allows you to give to your children and grandchildren ... Examining how much property individuals attain in terms of net societal benefit as compared to pay cap ... catching up on presumed inadequate taxation over their lives ... allowing CEOs to make X redistribution must be done. I shudder to think you're probably talking in good faith here. No individuals but only servants of societal benefit, no unjust policies but only the ends justify the means, and so transparently the politics of envy but without attendant shame. I really hate to think this may be what we're headed towards. It's the social contract that binds us together. If a man lived on an island by himself and all his possessions were crafted by his own hand I wouldn't see any reason to tax him. But within a capitalist society every rich man has become rich through the redistribution of labour from others to them. We allow capitalism to redistribute wealth because it's functionally effective for allocating resources within society but there is nothing natural about, say, land ownership. If a field in Texas is discovered to have oil underneath it it does not rationally follow that all Americans should have to collectively make the owner of the field a billionaire in order to make their commute to work. You need to recognize that the wealth capitalism awards you is simply the product of an artificial system that was created by men to help decide whether ipods or zunes were better. The fact that an employer is willing to pay you $100,000 for your labour does not mean that the intrinsic value of your labour is $100,000, it's just a bullshit number that the system produced. If you get rid of society none of this labour has any intrinsic value, it's simply a product of a set of rules we created. You're trying to combine two completely separate concepts, the individual and capitalist society and it doesn't work. You can't have capitalism on an island with one occupant. Taxation is part of the same book of rules that capitalism comes from, and neither makes any sense from an individualist perspective. I don't know how you're defining "intrinsic" value, but if an employer is willing to pay me $100,000, the market value of my labor is $100,000 (assuming efficient/competitive markets). If the market values my labor more than someone else's, it follows that (again, assuming efficient/competitive markets) society's best estimate of my labor's value is more than that other person's. Should not the fruits of society's labor be distributed, in principle, proportionally to those who created it? Especially given that, for most people, the market value of the labor is--to a pretty large degree--under their control during their lifetime? You can argue that heirs to large fortunes didn't really create the value that their fortune's create (their parents did) and I think that's fair (though there are counterarguments in favor of the estate tax as well), or that economic mobility isn't possible (I disagree), but to act like the only basis for how society's wealth should be distributed is the tyranny of the masses (who are writing the "book of rules" you're referencing--at least in a democracy) doesn't have any moral or ethical basis in favor of it. The share of the wealth you get and the share of the wealth you created aren't well correlated. That's pretty much the point of capitalism, the underlying mechanism that makes capitalism work is people attempting to do arbitrage to take advantage of that discrepancy. If you break it down to its very simplest village level bartering, the objective is to find something that you can produce in an hour that you can trade for firewood that took two hours to chop. You perform one hour of labour, and yet you get two hours of stuff. The mechanism relies upon disproportionate rewards to redistribute labour and direct economic activity. Clearly whatever the guy in the village was doing with his hour was the right thing to do, and other villagers may follow him until an equilibrium where 1 hour = 1 hour is restored. Arbitrage to exploit disproportionate rewards between what you contribute and what you get is the engine that drives capitalism. By the time we apply it on a modern global perspective the difference is staggering, a ratio of thousands of manhours to one in many cases. These differences are reinforced by artificial impositions upon the ability of many people to engage in arbitrage, such as denying Mexicans the ability to sell their labour in America, and by exploitation grandfathered in by the capital class. However, the basic engine remains the same, the economic systems offers participants in the economy disproportionate rewards for directing their labour in certain ways. The disproportionate outcome needs to exist for our society to work. We need doctors to get more than grocers to keep kids in school. But it doesn't follow that what the system outputs is what you deserve, or what you earned. It's certainly not what you created, any American can tell that the manhours of labour they consume on any given day greatly exceed the manhours of labour they performed. Deserve and earned are subjective moral concepts that aren't relevant to the mechanism, what you get is what you get. This is literally nonsense. I barely know where to begin. Suppose an hour's worth of labor chopping firewood produces $1 of firewood. The new guy creates $2/hr with whatever he's doing. He's twice as productive. If chooses to work the same amount of time, he gets twice as much stuff. That's literally the definition of proportional. How that's supposed to be disproportionate, I have no idea. The share of the wealth you get and the share of the wealth you created aren't well correlated. ??? I'm pretty sure fast-food workers are creating much less wealth than software engineers, successful investors, etc. I literally can't even imagine how society would exist if this statement were true. Why would capitalism even be efficient if this statement were true? What is your definition of "well correlated"? 0.99999999999999999?? It's certainly not what you created, any American can tell that the manhours of labour they consume on any given day greatly exceed the manhours of labour they performed. I'm not sure this is true at all. In fact, I'd lean towards not true if anything. Ever heard of an economy of scale? I work at a mega-scale tech company. I work 40-50 hrs/week, but my work influences thousands of people directly, and affects millions indirectly. Hell, the marginal cost of someone consuming my work is practically zero. Likewise, the marginal cost (in terms of other's time) of most of the stuff I consume is practically zero. That's how automation works, and is why we're fabulously wealthy compared to several hundred years ago. Why is the bartering village using dollars? Remove the dollars, try again. What objective system of valuation are you using to show that you're producing more value than the fast food worker from your day? Remembering of course that you're already justifying the getting more money than them by the fact that you create more value so you cannot complete the circle and use the more money to prove the greater value. If you work 40-50 hours a week then your manhours are 40-50 hours a week, regardless of how many people you influence. Even with economies of scale you're consuming more than that. The equation for this is actually super simple. The amount you spent (if we want to get technical this should be expensed and we should expense shit like car purchases and taxes over time to account for those) divided by the average hourly wage of the people who produced it will give you a rough estimate of the manhours you consumed. I'll give you a hint here, globally most people don't earn much hourly. Automation isn't relevant to this at all unless you think the machines are drawing a paycheck. The money you spend goes to someone somewhere at whatever hourly rate they make. You need to use $$. Not even marxists think 1hr of labor = 1hr of labor.
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On November 09 2017 23:11 Liquid`Drone wrote: I don't see the societal benefit from individuals being billionaires. I get 'they invest and create jobs', but I've never seen any compelling evidence that one individual holding 1 billion creates more, better jobs than 200 individuals holding $5 million does. No difference. I'd err on the side of figuring the 200 would do better. Kind of the point of corps and professional managers / finance.
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On November 10 2017 05:20 {CC}StealthBlue wrote:Show nested quote +WASHINGTON — After a business meeting before the Miss Universe Pageant in 2013, a Russian participant offered to "send five women" to Donald Trump's hotel room in Moscow, his longtime bodyguard told Congress this week, according to three sources who were present for the interview.
Two of the sources said the bodyguard, Keith Schiller, viewed the offer as a joke, and immediately responded, "We don't do that type of stuff."
The two sources said Schiller's comments came in the context of him adamantly disputing the allegations made in the Trump dossier, written by a former British intelligence operative, which describes Trump having an encounter with prostitutes at the hotel during the pageant. Schiller described his reaction to that story as being, "Oh my God, that's bull----," two sources said.
The conversation with the Russian about the five women took place after a morning meeting about the pageant in Moscow broke up, two sources said.
That night, two sources said, Schiller said he discussed the conversation with Trump as Trump was walking back to his hotel room, and Schiller said the two men laughed about it as Trump went to bed alone. Schiller testified that he stood outside Trump's hotel room for a time and then went to bed.
One source noted that Schiller testified he eventually left Trump's hotel room door and could not say for sure what happened during the remainder of the night.
Two other sources said Schiller testified he was confident nothing happened.
Schiller said he and Trump were aware of the risk that hotel rooms in Moscow could be set up to capture hidden video, two sources said.
Schiller was grilled about the Moscow trip as part of four hours of testimony before the House Intelligence Committee. The questioning around the Moscow trip took a significant amount of time, the sources said. Schiller was also asked about the June 2016 meeting at Trump Tower between Donald Trump Jr. and Russians, two of the sources said. He testified that he did not recall much about that day.
In a statement, Schiller's lawyer said "the versions of Mr. Schiller’s testimony being leaked to the press are blatantly false and misleading. "
"We are appalled by the leaks that are coming from partisan insiders from the House Intelligence Committee," said Stuart Sears. "It is outrageous that the very Committee that is conducting an investigation into leaks — purportedly in the public interest — is itself leaking information and defaming cooperative witnesses like Mr. Schiller. The Chairman and Ranking Member should investigate and hold accountable whoever is responsible for leaking false and misleading versions of Mr. Schiller’s testimony. This conduct is indefensible and calls into question the credibility and motives of the Committee’s investigation."
A Navy veteran, Schiller worked part-time as a bodyguard for Trump while still an NYPD officer. He began working for Trump full-time after his retirement from the force in 2002 and became his director of security in 2004. He served as director of oval office operations in the Trump White House from January until September. Source
Anyone who would put the pee tape story past Trump is a fool.
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