the superclass of an eigenclass of a class is the eigenclass of the class’s superclass
Some crazy shit right there.
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Manit0u
Poland17420 Posts
May 08 2017 05:39 GMT
#17581
Some crazy shit right there. | ||
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Nesserev
Belgium2760 Posts
May 08 2017 17:41 GMT
#17582
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Djagulingu
Germany3605 Posts
May 08 2017 19:41 GMT
#17583
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AKnopf
Germany259 Posts
May 08 2017 20:39 GMT
#17584
On May 08 2017 14:39 Manit0u wrote: Was reading a bit on the Ruby object model and it really cracked me up:
Some crazy shit right there. Haha, gotta love that! But where did you read that? The superclass of any eigenclass is always class (that's why it's a class in the first place). And the eigenclass of anything can never be class*. But that's what any classes superclass is. So that definitely is wrong. Funny sentence though :D* Also there is no eigenclass that is shared with anything (it is "eigen" to its object). But your sentence would mean that the class "C" and its superclass "S" share the same eigenclass "e". This cannot be true, though. I guess the sentence could be true if by "is" the author means "I *is* an instance if class C or any of its subclasses". But even that would be a stretch since then an eigenclass would have to be the superclass to its object, which it is technically not. Sorry if I'm wrong here. Did I miss anything? Also sorry for being triggered. Ruby's object model is just too much fun :D Edit: Just to be sure, I just tried it on tryruby.org
Not the same | ||
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Manit0u
Poland17420 Posts
May 09 2017 09:25 GMT
#17585
On May 09 2017 05:39 AKnopf wrote: Show nested quote + On May 08 2017 14:39 Manit0u wrote: Was reading a bit on the Ruby object model and it really cracked me up:
Some crazy shit right there. Haha, gotta love that! But where did you read that? The superclass of any eigenclass is always class (that's why it's a class in the first place). And the eigenclass of anything can never be class*. But that's what any classes superclass is. So that definitely is wrong. Funny sentence though :D* Also there is no eigenclass that is shared with anything (it is "eigen" to its object). But your sentence would mean that the class "C" and its superclass "S" share the same eigenclass "e". This cannot be true, though. I guess the sentence could be true if by "is" the author means "I *is* an instance if class C or any of its subclasses". But even that would be a stretch since then an eigenclass would have to be the superclass to its object, which it is technically not. Sorry if I'm wrong here. Did I miss anything? Also sorry for being triggered. Ruby's object model is just too much fun :D Edit: Just to be sure, I just tried it on tryruby.org
Not the same https://www.sitepoint.com/understanding-object-model/
Edit: Also, super useful thingie: ![]() | ||
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shz
Germany2687 Posts
May 09 2017 14:52 GMT
#17586
Following folder structure: folderA/folderB/ I want to ignore everything in folderA/and its subfolders except 2 files inside folderA/folderB/ How do I write my .gitignore? | ||
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Nesserev
Belgium2760 Posts
May 09 2017 15:05 GMT
#17587
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shz
Germany2687 Posts
May 09 2017 15:30 GMT
#17588
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aRyuujin
United States5049 Posts
May 09 2017 17:55 GMT
#17589
On May 09 2017 18:25 Manit0u wrote: Show nested quote + On May 09 2017 05:39 AKnopf wrote: On May 08 2017 14:39 Manit0u wrote: Was reading a bit on the Ruby object model and it really cracked me up:
Some crazy shit right there. Haha, gotta love that! But where did you read that? The superclass of any eigenclass is always class (that's why it's a class in the first place). And the eigenclass of anything can never be class*. But that's what any classes superclass is. So that definitely is wrong. Funny sentence though :D* Also there is no eigenclass that is shared with anything (it is "eigen" to its object). But your sentence would mean that the class "C" and its superclass "S" share the same eigenclass "e". This cannot be true, though. I guess the sentence could be true if by "is" the author means "I *is* an instance if class C or any of its subclasses". But even that would be a stretch since then an eigenclass would have to be the superclass to its object, which it is technically not. Sorry if I'm wrong here. Did I miss anything? Also sorry for being triggered. Ruby's object model is just too much fun :D Edit: Just to be sure, I just tried it on tryruby.org
Not the same https://www.sitepoint.com/understanding-object-model/
Edit: Also, super useful thingie: + Show Spoiler + ![]() this is why i hate oop | ||
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Manit0u
Poland17420 Posts
May 10 2017 10:57 GMT
#17590
![]() | ||
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TMG26
Portugal2017 Posts
May 10 2017 11:08 GMT
#17591
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Hanh
146 Posts
May 10 2017 11:27 GMT
#17592
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Deleted User 3420
24492 Posts
May 13 2017 01:22 GMT
#17593
If T is a linear transformation from R^n to R^n which is one-to-one, then for every y in R^n there exists x such that T(x) = y. I said false, the solution page says this is true. but isn't this the definition of onto, not one-to-one ? | ||
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ZigguratOfUr
Iraq16955 Posts
May 13 2017 03:26 GMT
#17594
On May 13 2017 10:22 travis wrote: doing a practice final for linear algebra. True or false If T is a linear transformation from R^n to R^n which is one-to-one, then for every y in R^n there exists x such that T(x) = y. I said false, the solution page says this is true. but isn't this the definition of onto, not one-to-one ? Yeah, the solution is wrong. | ||
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CoughingHydra
177 Posts
May 13 2017 09:41 GMT
#17595
On May 13 2017 12:26 ZigguratOfUr wrote: Show nested quote + On May 13 2017 10:22 travis wrote: doing a practice final for linear algebra. True or false If T is a linear transformation from R^n to R^n which is one-to-one, then for every y in R^n there exists x such that T(x) = y. I said false, the solution page says this is true. but isn't this the definition of onto, not one-to-one ? Yeah, the solution is wrong. Actually, no! The solution is right - if you have a linear transformation from R^n to R^n (or more generally from a linear space V to a linear space W with dim V = dim W < infinity), then being one to one is equivalent to being onto. This follows from the Rank-nullity theorem. This is very similar to having a mapping from an n-element set to an n-element set - it is onto if and only if it is one to one. | ||
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Acrofales
Spain18108 Posts
May 13 2017 10:06 GMT
#17596
On May 13 2017 18:41 CoughingHydra wrote: Show nested quote + On May 13 2017 12:26 ZigguratOfUr wrote: On May 13 2017 10:22 travis wrote: doing a practice final for linear algebra. True or false If T is a linear transformation from R^n to R^n which is one-to-one, then for every y in R^n there exists x such that T(x) = y. I said false, the solution page says this is true. but isn't this the definition of onto, not one-to-one ? Yeah, the solution is wrong. Actually, no! The solution is right - if you have a linear transformation from R^n to R^n (or more generally from a linear space V to a linear space W with dim V = dim W < infinity), then being one to one is equivalent to being onto. This follows from the Rank-nullity theorem. This is very similar to having a mapping from an n-element set to an n-element set - it is onto if and only if it is one to one. This doesn't sound right, because they're not finite sets. My counterexample was wrong for R^n. It'd hold for Z^n. Need to come up with one that works with real numbers. | ||
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Hanh
146 Posts
May 13 2017 10:56 GMT
#17597
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Prillan
Sweden350 Posts
May 13 2017 11:20 GMT
#17598
On May 13 2017 19:56 Hanh wrote: CoughingHydra is correct. Yup, a map being linear is a pretty strong property. It's a nicely put question since it tests students on: injectivity (one-to-one), surjectivity (onto), rank, nullity and the rank-nullity theorem. EDIT: On May 13 2017 19:06 Acrofales wrote: Show nested quote + On May 13 2017 18:41 CoughingHydra wrote: On May 13 2017 12:26 ZigguratOfUr wrote: On May 13 2017 10:22 travis wrote: doing a practice final for linear algebra. True or false If T is a linear transformation from R^n to R^n which is one-to-one, then for every y in R^n there exists x such that T(x) = y. I said false, the solution page says this is true. but isn't this the definition of onto, not one-to-one ? Yeah, the solution is wrong. Actually, no! The solution is right - if you have a linear transformation from R^n to R^n (or more generally from a linear space V to a linear space W with dim V = dim W < infinity), then being one to one is equivalent to being onto. This follows from the Rank-nullity theorem. This is very similar to having a mapping from an n-element set to an n-element set - it is onto if and only if it is one to one. This doesn't sound right, because they're not finite sets. My counterexample was wrong for R^n. It'd hold for Z^n. Need to come up with one that works with real numbers. Z is not a field, so you wouldn't even have a vector space to begin with. | ||
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Prillan
Sweden350 Posts
May 13 2017 11:21 GMT
#17599
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Acrofales
Spain18108 Posts
May 13 2017 13:41 GMT
#17600
On May 13 2017 20:20 Prillan wrote: Yup, a map being linear is a pretty strong property. It's a nicely put question since it tests students on: injectivity (one-to-one), surjectivity (onto), rank, nullity and the rank-nullity theorem. EDIT: Show nested quote + On May 13 2017 19:06 Acrofales wrote: On May 13 2017 18:41 CoughingHydra wrote: On May 13 2017 12:26 ZigguratOfUr wrote: On May 13 2017 10:22 travis wrote: doing a practice final for linear algebra. True or false If T is a linear transformation from R^n to R^n which is one-to-one, then for every y in R^n there exists x such that T(x) = y. I said false, the solution page says this is true. but isn't this the definition of onto, not one-to-one ? Yeah, the solution is wrong. Actually, no! The solution is right - if you have a linear transformation from R^n to R^n (or more generally from a linear space V to a linear space W with dim V = dim W < infinity), then being one to one is equivalent to being onto. This follows from the Rank-nullity theorem. This is very similar to having a mapping from an n-element set to an n-element set - it is onto if and only if it is one to one. This doesn't sound right, because they're not finite sets. My counterexample was wrong for R^n. It'd hold for Z^n. Need to come up with one that works with real numbers. Z is not a field, so you wouldn't even have a vector space to begin with. Yeah, forgot that fields need to have a mulitiplicative inverse, so scratch my counterexample Good thing you cought that! It is indeed a great exam question! | ||
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