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On October 06 2017 22:20 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:Show nested quote +On October 06 2017 22:08 ahswtini wrote:On October 06 2017 21:43 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:Random linguistic question, after reading everyone's preferences: In the United States, we typically abbreviate "mathematics" as "math", but I've noticed that people from many other countries prefer "maths", often times as a singular noun. I can understand if someone says something like "The different maths you might explore in high school are algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and calculus" - implying that maths is plural and responds to multiple branches of mathematics - but the idea that "pi is maths" or "algebra is maths" or "this is an example of maths" as a singular noun is foreign to me. I was just wondering if there was any additional nuance as to why some people prefer "maths" over "math" when referring to a singular entity. Thanks  i think it's just because the full word is 'mathematics' which sounds plural, and so the abbreviation 'math' should naturally also be plural Oh... but just because a word ends in "s" doesn't mean it's plural lol. Mathematics is almost always a singular noun, not plural... mathematics is the study of many topics, but there's no such word as "mathematic". My favorite subject is mathematics, not my favorite subjects are mathematics. Oh well.
That's why he wrote it sounds plural, not it is
Also proving fundamentals without defining axioms,especially when using derived concepts which are often defined using said fundamentals seems pointless.
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I literally don't know what it is, so I'm always confused about how to write it. I guess that's why I write both math and maths lol
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Northern Ireland22211 Posts
On October 06 2017 22:20 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:Show nested quote +On October 06 2017 22:08 ahswtini wrote:On October 06 2017 21:43 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:Random linguistic question, after reading everyone's preferences: In the United States, we typically abbreviate "mathematics" as "math", but I've noticed that people from many other countries prefer "maths", often times as a singular noun. I can understand if someone says something like "The different maths you might explore in high school are algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and calculus" - implying that maths is plural and responds to multiple branches of mathematics - but the idea that "pi is maths" or "algebra is maths" or "this is an example of maths" as a singular noun is foreign to me. I was just wondering if there was any additional nuance as to why some people prefer "maths" over "math" when referring to a singular entity. Thanks i think it's just because the full word is 'mathematics' which sounds plural, and so the abbreviation 'math' should naturally also be plural Oh... but just because a word ends in "s" doesn't mean it's plural lol. Mathematics is almost always a singular noun, not plural... mathematics is the study of many topics, but there's no such word as "mathematic". My favorite subject is mathematics, not my favorite subjects are mathematics. Oh well.
thanks for the english lesson lol, now how about you take some comprehension lessons
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On October 06 2017 23:21 Kleinmuuhg wrote:Show nested quote +On October 06 2017 22:20 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:On October 06 2017 22:08 ahswtini wrote:On October 06 2017 21:43 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:Random linguistic question, after reading everyone's preferences: In the United States, we typically abbreviate "mathematics" as "math", but I've noticed that people from many other countries prefer "maths", often times as a singular noun. I can understand if someone says something like "The different maths you might explore in high school are algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and calculus" - implying that maths is plural and responds to multiple branches of mathematics - but the idea that "pi is maths" or "algebra is maths" or "this is an example of maths" as a singular noun is foreign to me. I was just wondering if there was any additional nuance as to why some people prefer "maths" over "math" when referring to a singular entity. Thanks i think it's just because the full word is 'mathematics' which sounds plural, and so the abbreviation 'math' should naturally also be plural Oh... but just because a word ends in "s" doesn't mean it's plural lol. Mathematics is almost always a singular noun, not plural... mathematics is the study of many topics, but there's no such word as "mathematic". My favorite subject is mathematics, not my favorite subjects are mathematics. Oh well. That's why he wrote it sounds plural, not it is Also proving fundamentals without defining axioms,especially when using derived concepts which are often defined using said fundamentals seems pointless.
Right, but that's an inconsistency with what ahswtini said, not with what I said. He said that since mathematics "sounds plural" he thinks that the abbreviation math should "be plural". Sounding plural doesn't mean something is plural, and if an abbreviation is supposed to represent the same thing, then shouldn't the abbreviation be the same singular or plural type? It matters with subject/ verb agreement, etc.
On October 06 2017 23:27 Uldridge wrote:
I literally don't know what it is, so I'm always confused about how to write it. I guess that's why I write both math and maths lol
That's fair I think consistency is probably better.
On October 07 2017 00:04 ahswtini wrote:Show nested quote +On October 06 2017 22:20 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:On October 06 2017 22:08 ahswtini wrote:On October 06 2017 21:43 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:Random linguistic question, after reading everyone's preferences: In the United States, we typically abbreviate "mathematics" as "math", but I've noticed that people from many other countries prefer "maths", often times as a singular noun. I can understand if someone says something like "The different maths you might explore in high school are algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and calculus" - implying that maths is plural and responds to multiple branches of mathematics - but the idea that "pi is maths" or "algebra is maths" or "this is an example of maths" as a singular noun is foreign to me. I was just wondering if there was any additional nuance as to why some people prefer "maths" over "math" when referring to a singular entity. Thanks i think it's just because the full word is 'mathematics' which sounds plural, and so the abbreviation 'math' should naturally also be plural Oh... but just because a word ends in "s" doesn't mean it's plural lol. Mathematics is almost always a singular noun, not plural... mathematics is the study of many topics, but there's no such word as "mathematic". My favorite subject is mathematics, not my favorite subjects are mathematics. Oh well. thanks for the english lesson lol, now how about you take some comprehension lessons
Not sure why you're so offended, but your response doesn't help clarify anything.
The OP says "So what is welcome here? Anything math related! Random questions, theory, homework discussion, anything." This is definitely a related random question, although apparently it's upsetting you >.> I didn't mean to offend you; I was just curious as to conventional spelling preferences.
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If the pair of you can just stop with the little love spat, maths and math, the spelling and spoken difference probably occurs for the same reason as Aluminium and Aluminim...
...Americans are too lazy to speak English properly.
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On October 07 2017 02:08 Dangermousecatdog wrote:
If the pair of you can just stop with the little love spat, maths and math, the spelling and spoken difference probably occurs for the same reason as Aluminium and Aluminim...
...Americans are too lazy to speak English properly.
Aluminum* 
But seriously, it was an honest, math-related question. Other people responded with actual replies; I'm not sure why ahswtini took it so personally. People are more than welcome to move on to a different question, and I don't think anyone is going to be trying to spell-check everyone else who chooses to spell it "math" or "maths" 
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On October 06 2017 22:20 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:Show nested quote +On October 06 2017 22:08 ahswtini wrote:On October 06 2017 21:43 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:Random linguistic question, after reading everyone's preferences: In the United States, we typically abbreviate "mathematics" as "math", but I've noticed that people from many other countries prefer "maths", often times as a singular noun. I can understand if someone says something like "The different maths you might explore in high school are algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and calculus" - implying that maths is plural and responds to multiple branches of mathematics - but the idea that "pi is maths" or "algebra is maths" or "this is an example of maths" as a singular noun is foreign to me. I was just wondering if there was any additional nuance as to why some people prefer "maths" over "math" when referring to a singular entity. Thanks i think it's just because the full word is 'mathematics' which sounds plural, and so the abbreviation 'math' should naturally also be plural Oh... but just because a word ends in "s" doesn't mean it's plural lol. Mathematics is almost always a singular noun, not plural... mathematics is the study of many topics, but there's no such word as "mathematic". My favorite subject is mathematics, not my favorite subjects are mathematics. Oh well.
It may not be plural in English, but it is in Spanish. It's las matemáticas, not la. So given that Spanish is closer etymologically to the common Latin root "ars matematica" (and the Romans simply stole the Greek word for learning there), treating it as a plural if it has the s is probably best.
However, English in general has a weird fetish of replacing the original a with an s (and keeping it as a singular word): mechanics, electronics, analytics, physics.. all from originally Greek words ending in an a sound (especially after passing through Latin).
Finally, your example is wrong if trying to prove mathematics is not plural (not saying it is: English is a fucking weird bastardization of a language). "My favorite topic is birds/trees/cars". These are all plural, but it's not "my favorite topics are ..." In a sentence like this. Subject works in the same way..
I looked it up. The dictionary doesn't know whether it's singular or plural. Trolololol: http://www.dictionary.com/browse/mathematics
Merriam Webster goes a step further and says it's technically plural, but usually used as a singular construct: https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/mathematics
Seriously. Fix your language, lol.
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On October 07 2017 20:13 Acrofales wrote:Show nested quote +On October 06 2017 22:20 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:On October 06 2017 22:08 ahswtini wrote:On October 06 2017 21:43 DarkPlasmaBall wrote:Random linguistic question, after reading everyone's preferences: In the United States, we typically abbreviate "mathematics" as "math", but I've noticed that people from many other countries prefer "maths", often times as a singular noun. I can understand if someone says something like "The different maths you might explore in high school are algebra, geometry, trigonometry, and calculus" - implying that maths is plural and responds to multiple branches of mathematics - but the idea that "pi is maths" or "algebra is maths" or "this is an example of maths" as a singular noun is foreign to me. I was just wondering if there was any additional nuance as to why some people prefer "maths" over "math" when referring to a singular entity. Thanks i think it's just because the full word is 'mathematics' which sounds plural, and so the abbreviation 'math' should naturally also be plural Oh... but just because a word ends in "s" doesn't mean it's plural lol. Mathematics is almost always a singular noun, not plural... mathematics is the study of many topics, but there's no such word as "mathematic". My favorite subject is mathematics, not my favorite subjects are mathematics. Oh well. It may not be plural in English, but it is in Spanish. It's las matemáticas, not la. So given that Spanish is closer etymologically to the common Latin root "ars matematica" (and the Romans simply stole the Greek word for learning there), treating it as a plural if it has the s is probably best. However, English in general has a weird fetish of replacing the original a with an s (and keeping it as a singular word): mechanics, electronics, analytics, physics.. all from originally Greek words ending in an a sound (especially after passing through Latin). Finally, your example is wrong if trying to prove mathematics is not plural (not saying it is: English is a fucking weird bastardization of a language). "My favorite topic is birds/trees/cars". These are all plural, but it's not "my favorite topics are ..." In a sentence like this. Subject works in the same way.. I looked it up. The dictionary doesn't know whether it's singular or plural. Trolololol: http://www.dictionary.com/browse/mathematicsMerriam Webster goes a step further and says it's technically plural, but usually used as a singular construct: https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/mathematicsSeriously. Fix your language, lol.
English is definitely an inconsistent language lol, and those other Greek words are good examples too. And I didn't know about the relationship to Spanish; thanks for sharing that!
Depending on the dictionary (which just makes the issue even less consistent), it seems that "mathematics" can also be seen as technically singular as well, yet also function as either singular or plural: http://www.thefreedictionary.com/mathematics
This British reference uses "maths was" and says that mathematics is singular/ mass noun: http://dictionary.cambridge.org/grammar/british-grammar/about-nouns/nouns-singular-and-plural
So I guess the bottom line is: "Math is ___" or "Maths is ___" are both acceptable conventions based on location (and that the English language is often times silly and inconsistent). Understood. Thanks everyone for responding
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How do you proof that there are only 20,456 polydivisible numbers?
+ Show Spoiler +I am not a mathematician. I am reading Matt Parker's "Things to make and do in the fourth dimension" and he just mentions that. I look up wikipedia and they just mention that and I wonder how to show that. Intuitivly I would have guessed there are infinitly many.
edit: Oh, I got it. Fun question though, don't you think?
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your Country52797 Posts
I get why there would be a finite number. There are a finite number of 10-digit polydivisible numbers, and each one can create either 0 or 1 polydivisible numbers with the same starting digits. Repeat, and the total number of polydivisible numbers with n+1 digits is fewer than or equal to the number of polydivisible numbers with n digits (n≥10). I'm not sure how to show this eventually reaches 0, though.
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On October 09 2017 03:51 The_Templar wrote:
I get why there would be a finite number. There are a finite number of 10-digit polydivisible numbers, and each one can create either 0 or 1 polydivisible numbers with the same starting digits. Repeat, and the total number of polydivisible numbers with n+1 digits is fewer than or equal to the number of polydivisible numbers with n digits (n≥10). I'm not sure how to show this eventually reaches 0, though.
Presumably you show convergence with an inductive proof with a series. However, that just shows there is a finite number. Figuring out that that is 20,456 takes further work. I don't know much about number theory, though, so count me out.
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I'd guess that the simplest way to figure out how many there are is to just find them all, because it is very easy to prove that you have found the last one. (Test all of the polydivisible numbers with n digits, test 0-9 as digit n+1 and see if it is divisible by n+1. If not, there are no more of them ever afterwards.)
With computers, it shouldn't be hard to just try numbers until they stop working.
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studying up for a test that includes orthogonality, doing practice problems
came across this
http://www.slader.com/textbook/9780134013473-linear-algebra-and-its-applications-5th-edition/354/exercises/15/
the problem was to find the distance from y to the plane in R^3 spanned by u_1 and u_2 where y = [5; -9; 5], u_1 = [-3; -5; 1] and u_2 = [-3; 2; 1].
Can someone explain why step 5/6 cares about squaring the distance? Why does that matter? They are just squaring the distance and then immediately taking the square root again.
Isn't the entire point to find the length of y - yhat ? My book's examples are doing the same thing. I feel like there must be a point but I don't understand what it is.
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Squaring and then square rooting is typically how you find the absolute value of a number, so that negative differences and positive differences are still represented in the final summation, rather than them cancelling out ahead of time. That's typical in distance formula problems and other kinds of problems where you need to add up variations, like with standard deviations in statistics.
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But length of a vector, ||v|| means precisely to take v*v and then square root it, right? So length will always be positive. So squaring ||v|| and then square rooting it is redundant. (well, in R^n, right?)
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In R^n you are right, this is redundant. ||x-y|| is sufficient.
If I had to guess why this is written this way:
In other applications the 2-norm (euclidian norm) is used in combination with a (...)^2 to cancel out the square root, which is where the author might have the notation from. Obviously to get the distance you then have to re-add the root.
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Imo the reason is different:
You calculate ||x||² first, because that just involves not doing the square root when doing the norm. Basically, you ||x||, then square, then root, which would indeed be silly.
They calculate ||x||² , which just means taking the squares of all components (without root), and then in the next step they take the sqrt of that.
There is no deeper mathematical reasoning for this, it is just a different way to write down the stuff that you would already do, namely squaring all components, adding them up, and then taking the square root. So they don't calculate Sqrt(v*v) and then square it, and sqrt it again. That would be silly. They calculate v*v=||v||², and then sqrt it to get the value of the distance.
The reason this style of writing is chosen is probably that in a lot of cases, you don't actually need to take the square root in the end. An example would be sphere equations in R³. Sure, you could take the root on both sides of the equation, but that just makes the equation more ugly and more annoying to deal with.
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as a guy with a math degree i am embarrassed to ask this. but oh well.
i’m trying to figure out the winrate of a champ for everyone else vs one person.
overalll WR is 49% over 5k games.
my wr (not actually me) is 44% over 500 games.
what’s everyone ELSES WR?
i think i’ve come to 49.5% just by reasoning it out but my math is like pathetic, and it feels too low intuitively.
though i guess if my weight is .1 on a difference of 5% it makes sense that the increase is .005.
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49.6%
Edit: You found it yourself and also edited :p
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The actual calculation for it can be made very simple, as such: ((49*5000)-(44*500))/4500=49,56%
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EPT
