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This thread is a waste of time: the case against assange is the chick didn't know he was barebacking it, and in that country the law is that if a you fuck a girl without protection without her knowledge that constitutes rape/sexual assault. it's a bullshit charge basically.
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Germany has it completely right on this one, just my opinion though, US botches the idea completely, and I live in the US.
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Russian Federation266 Posts
On September 15 2012 20:31 khaydarin9 wrote:Show nested quote +On September 15 2012 17:47 Evilmystic wrote:On September 15 2012 15:37 khaydarin9 wrote:
I suspect you would still run into the problem of, say, waking up next to someone any not knowing if it was "I was intoxicated and consented to sex" or "I was intoxicated, passed out, and someone had sex with my unconscious body".
Edit: and I understand that people should probably take responsibility for their actions, which may include irresponsible drinking and putting yourself in position in which you can't defend yourself, but without the perpetrator of a crime, there would be no crime, and taking responsibility for your actions, so to speak, should apply to everyone.
Well, I think it isn't really important if you don't know whether you've been unconscious or simply intoxicated. Even if you've been unconscious you need some sort of evidence besides your own words, and if there is no such evidence there is no crime from legal viewpoint. On September 15 2012 16:46 sharkie wrote: What is rape? Well its whatever the current judge is deciding it is.
So many times I read rapists being not sentenced by judges for whatever reasons, especially in Austria and Germany. I'd agree with sunprince who has quoted William Blackstone earlier on this page. It's much worse when someone is put in jail for rape when in reality he had consensual sex. Such things happen more and more often these days and that's very concerning. The issue with intoxication is that in a lot of places, you legally can't consent to anything if you're drunk. This is to protect people from being taken advantage of - so, someone can't ply another person with alcohol and make them sign a contract that they otherwise, being sober and rational, would not have signed; or someone can't get another person drunk so that they can have sex with them when they would normally have declined, though just looking at pop culture, the latter is probably astonishingly common. I also think it's difficult to say which is "worse" (and which of the two happens more frequently): innocent men being falsely accused and successfully convicted of rape, or men guilty of rape going free. Could you say the same about any other violent crime - that it's "worse" that innocent people are being sent to jail than it is having perpetrators pronounced innocent?
I'm pretty sure there are a lot of things you can consent to while intoxicated. As long as you consumed alcohol/drugs voluntary everything you've done voluntary after that is at your fault and no one else's. When someone is drugged by trickery it's a completely different case and should be discussed separately. Having sex while drunk isn't any how related to the pop culture and is so damn widespread that any sort of legislation against it will make even more people potential criminals than soft drugs prohibition.
And yes, I'm sure that it's far worse when innocent suffer from judicial mistakes than when real criminals go free for the same reason. Regardless of the crime in question. Saying otherwise would require us to reconsider the presumption of innocence and I hope that it has almost unanimous support in civilized societies.
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On September 15 2012 16:37 Hryul wrote:Show nested quote +On September 15 2012 07:30 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 00:16 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 20:29 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 17:18 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 08:16 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote:On September 14 2012 01:56 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 01:46 JustPassingBy wrote:*bump* In Germany, a man was sentenced non-guilty, because the girl he is said to have raped did not fight back. german source: http://www.spiegel.de/panorama/justiz/vorwurf-der-vergewaltigung-landgericht-essen-spricht-angeklagten-frei-a-855639.htmlGerman definition of rape includes something about violence, or threats, or being defenseless and according to the judge, the victim was not defenseless, as she could've shouted for help or run away but did neither. The literal translation of the "defenseless" clause is something like "abusing a situation in which the victim is defenseless at the mercy of the offender. edit: two facts upon which the sentence is based: 1. the door was open, so she could've escaped 2. there were people in the other apartments of the house, so her screams would've been heard. All sides in Germany are aware that the sentence is legally correct, but not morally. The article I stated talked about "men vs law". Based on Google Translate, the defendant did not act violently, did not threaten her, and she neither chose to leave nor to scream for help. In other words, there's no evidence of rape at all. So how exactly did people conclude she was raped? Because she didn't consent to the sex. Especially considering that she is 15 and he is 31 and according to the two other women who were with them he becomes violent if they don't do what he tells them to do, it's quite possible that she felt defenseless (even if she objectively could have screamed for help or run away) and that's why she didn't fight back. You missed the point completely. To restate, what evidence is there that she didn't consent? On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote: But apparently, according to german law, saying "no" isn't enough of not consenting.
Pretty sure the issue is that there's no evidence she said "no" in the first place. I'm not sure what your point is here. Are you saying that there isn't enough evidence that she didn't consent to convict the guy? If so, read the post you're quoting again, the law came to the exact same conclusion so there's no dispute there. Or are you saying that you can't possibly be raped if you could have screamed and didn't? I think that statement massively misunderstands how traumatic rape is and how people respond to it. Maybe she was raped and maybe she wasn't but the facts are that there was just her word against his so he was found not guilty and that's fine. According to JustPassingBy there is great moral outrage over the court's decision. My point is that if there is indeed no evidence, I'm not seeing why "all sides in Germany" think this decision was morally wrong. If I missed something in the article it would be great if a German speaker could point that out. According to the poster above the issue isn't that he was found not guilty in a her word against his case but that simply saying "no, I do not want to have sex with you" isn't deemed non consent, you actually need to physically resist. I agree that that misunderstands how a significant number of rapes play out and fails to protect the victim. That definition of rape plays into the "legitimate rape" myth in which a chaste and virtuous young woman is attacked within her home by a stranger and fails to fight him off. Ignoring a verbal refusal should be enough to classify it as rape, if a man hears "stop" and doesn't stop then I have no sympathy for him. It sounds like what happened is that she said that she told him "no". However, there's no evidence to corroborate this, and in fact, the evidence contradicts this. Not to mention the fact that there can be relevant context that the article didn't discuss, such as a girl saying "no" yet changing her mind afterward, or saying "no" in a non-literal (such as playful or sarcastic) manner. What's going on is that the outraged people are just taking her at her word and forgetting all about little concepts like innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt. On September 15 2012 05:36 Reason wrote: The above comment though applies to all law. So many stupid sentences passed and so many guilty people let free... it is very frustrating sometimes but I guess all we can do is make a concious effort to gradually improve the process. "Better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer." Please read this where you can find a translation of the article. The man was set free because in german law either a threat, an imminent danger or helplessness is mandatory for "rape". According to the Court she could have run away because the door was not locked or cry for help. The problem is that many german newspapers are utter trash and confused "didn't resist enough" (wrong) with "wasn't helpless" (actual reason).
I did read that already. The point I'm making is that a threat, imminent danger, or helplessness is mandatory because otherwise, it's a he-said, she-said situation where there's no evidence.
The man was found not guilty because there's no proof beyond a reasonable doubt that he raped her. In fact, the evidence that she neither attempted to leave nor called for help suggests that he did not rape her.
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i'm sorry i misunderstood your post then. I hope you took no(t too much) offense.
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Just trying to correct various misconceptions I saw in this thread.
Rape is not ...... aka read this if you think your tortured "grey area hypothetical" is clever
Because so many people who should know better have been getting it so so wrong over the past few weeks, and because like many feminists I’ve just about reached my limit as to how much more victim blaming and ignorance I can tolerate before I completely explode, here’s a handy cut out and keep guide to some of the things that rape categorically isn’t. On anti-rape campaigns which start by saying, “Now, no one *wants* to rape anyone…”
...huge numbers of men want to be free to act however they like, including in ways others might experience as rape, and believe that it’s fine. That’s why there’s such a battle over the “definition” of rape. They don’t care whether others are experiencing it as rape. They just want to be able to call it - and think of it as - “not rape” Dear Second and Third Wave Feminists With Publically Recognizable Names
The people intent upon raping us know that “no means no” as much as we do. The people intent upon raping us do not want to think of this as a rape, do not want to think of themselves as rapists, do not want to allow the possibility of facing consequences for raping us. They will do everything within their power to make that “no” unbelievable or invisible. Some Rapes are More Legitimate than Others
Maybe once we’re done discussing the relative merits of one rape over another, we might focus our attention on the ways that dating is just another front in the war of the sexes. We might wonder why there are so many books about how women must change themselves to win the love of Mr. Right, while men are flooded with books about how to pick up as many women as possible. And we might finally draw connections between a culture that encourages men to get their dicks into women’s vaginas by any means necessary and the ongoing delegitimization of date rape. Explicit Violence aka why men should STFU and listen to women on this topic
It’s 2012 and I’m still reading about what the girl or woman was wearing that night. Or how she should hold aspirin between her legs. Or how she shouldn’t say the word “vagina” on the floor of congress. Or how a friend at a bar wants the sob stories to end. What I’m trying to tell you is that violence against girls and women is in every move we make, whether it is big violence or small, explicit or hidden behind the word father. Priest. Lover. Teacher. Coach. Friend. I’m trying to explain how you can be a girl and a woman and travel through male violence like it’s part of what living a life means. Getting into or out of a car. A plane. Going through a door to your own home. A church. School. Pool. It can seem normal. It can seem like just the way things are. Feminism 101: Helpful Hints for Dudes, Part 3
6% of college-aged men, slightly over 1 in 20, will admit to raping someone in anonymous surveys, as long as the word "rape" isn't used in the description of the act—and that's the conservative estimate. Other sources double that number. A lot of people accuse feminists of thinking that all men are rapists. That's not true. But do you know who think all men are rapists?
Rapists do.
They really do. In psychological study, the profiling, the studies, it comes out again and again. Virtually all rapists genuinely believe that all men rape, and other men just keep it hushed up better. And more, these people who really are rapists are constantly reaffirmed in their belief about the rest of mankind being rapists like them by things like rape jokes, that dismiss and normalize the idea of rape. True or False. Rape is a very easy accusation to make, and a very difficult crime to prove
IT'S TRIGGER WARNING WEEK aka SERIOUSLY, SHUT UP
It’s not about Julian Assange, not really, not any more. It’s becoming an excuse to wrench the definition of rape back to a time when consent was unimportant, just when some of us had begun to speak up, and it’s happening right now, and what’s worse, what’s so, so much worse, is that it’s happening in the name of truth and justice, in the name of freedom of speech.
If those principles are to mean anything, this vitriol, this rape-redefining in the name of conscience and whistleblowing and Wikileaks and Julian Assange, it has to stop. It has to stop now. Non-consensual sex is rape, real rape, and good guys do it too, all the time, every day. Sorry if that hurts to hear, but you’ve heard it now, and there are things that hurt much more, and for longer, and for lifetimes. “What rape is not” - and a suggested new crimeWhen a person is behaving in a rapeminded way, they don’t care about consent. In order for a person not to be behaving in a rapeminded way, they have a responsibility equal to the social power they possess to care about and bring about a state of consensuality in their sexual relations. more thoughts about why prison rape is not a joke aka male-victim rape is not ignored
One of the many, many problems with wishing rape on anyone - even other rapists - is that is places THEIR rapist as someone delivering justice. Rape as justice can only exist if you condone and approve of a rapist. And that’s what jokes about prison rape are about: approving of rapists. And see, that’s the sort of logic our culture already exercises: condoning rape and approving of rapists if the victim acts a certain way. If she’s wearing a short skirt, she deserves to be raped. If he’s a sex worker, it’s not ‘real’ rape. We don’t treat rape as a crime unless the victim fits certain criteria. This isn’t me having empathy for rapists or for pedophiles. This is me scared of the sort of logic that allows us to view rape as justice, rather than a crime. RAINN aka nor should it be the center of the discussion, everAccording to RAINN: Lifetime rate of rape /attempted rape for women by race
•All women: 17.6% •White women: 17.7% •Black women: 18.8% •Asian Pacific Islander women: 6.8% •American Indian/Alaskan women: 34.1% •Mixed race women: 24.4%
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United States41979 Posts
On September 16 2012 06:09 sunprince wrote:Show nested quote +On September 15 2012 16:37 Hryul wrote:On September 15 2012 07:30 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 00:16 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 20:29 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 17:18 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 08:16 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote:On September 14 2012 01:56 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 01:46 JustPassingBy wrote:*bump* In Germany, a man was sentenced non-guilty, because the girl he is said to have raped did not fight back. german source: http://www.spiegel.de/panorama/justiz/vorwurf-der-vergewaltigung-landgericht-essen-spricht-angeklagten-frei-a-855639.htmlGerman definition of rape includes something about violence, or threats, or being defenseless and according to the judge, the victim was not defenseless, as she could've shouted for help or run away but did neither. The literal translation of the "defenseless" clause is something like "abusing a situation in which the victim is defenseless at the mercy of the offender. edit: two facts upon which the sentence is based: 1. the door was open, so she could've escaped 2. there were people in the other apartments of the house, so her screams would've been heard. All sides in Germany are aware that the sentence is legally correct, but not morally. The article I stated talked about "men vs law". Based on Google Translate, the defendant did not act violently, did not threaten her, and she neither chose to leave nor to scream for help. In other words, there's no evidence of rape at all. So how exactly did people conclude she was raped? Because she didn't consent to the sex. Especially considering that she is 15 and he is 31 and according to the two other women who were with them he becomes violent if they don't do what he tells them to do, it's quite possible that she felt defenseless (even if she objectively could have screamed for help or run away) and that's why she didn't fight back. You missed the point completely. To restate, what evidence is there that she didn't consent? On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote: But apparently, according to german law, saying "no" isn't enough of not consenting.
Pretty sure the issue is that there's no evidence she said "no" in the first place. I'm not sure what your point is here. Are you saying that there isn't enough evidence that she didn't consent to convict the guy? If so, read the post you're quoting again, the law came to the exact same conclusion so there's no dispute there. Or are you saying that you can't possibly be raped if you could have screamed and didn't? I think that statement massively misunderstands how traumatic rape is and how people respond to it. Maybe she was raped and maybe she wasn't but the facts are that there was just her word against his so he was found not guilty and that's fine. According to JustPassingBy there is great moral outrage over the court's decision. My point is that if there is indeed no evidence, I'm not seeing why "all sides in Germany" think this decision was morally wrong. If I missed something in the article it would be great if a German speaker could point that out. According to the poster above the issue isn't that he was found not guilty in a her word against his case but that simply saying "no, I do not want to have sex with you" isn't deemed non consent, you actually need to physically resist. I agree that that misunderstands how a significant number of rapes play out and fails to protect the victim. That definition of rape plays into the "legitimate rape" myth in which a chaste and virtuous young woman is attacked within her home by a stranger and fails to fight him off. Ignoring a verbal refusal should be enough to classify it as rape, if a man hears "stop" and doesn't stop then I have no sympathy for him. It sounds like what happened is that she said that she told him "no". However, there's no evidence to corroborate this, and in fact, the evidence contradicts this. Not to mention the fact that there can be relevant context that the article didn't discuss, such as a girl saying "no" yet changing her mind afterward, or saying "no" in a non-literal (such as playful or sarcastic) manner. What's going on is that the outraged people are just taking her at her word and forgetting all about little concepts like innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt. On September 15 2012 05:36 Reason wrote: The above comment though applies to all law. So many stupid sentences passed and so many guilty people let free... it is very frustrating sometimes but I guess all we can do is make a concious effort to gradually improve the process. "Better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer." Please read this where you can find a translation of the article. The man was set free because in german law either a threat, an imminent danger or helplessness is mandatory for "rape". According to the Court she could have run away because the door was not locked or cry for help. The problem is that many german newspapers are utter trash and confused "didn't resist enough" (wrong) with "wasn't helpless" (actual reason). I did read that already. The point I'm making is that a threat, imminent danger, or helplessness is mandatory because otherwise, it's a he-said, she-said situation where there's no evidence. The man was found not guilty because there's no proof beyond a reasonable doubt that he raped her. In fact, the evidence that she neither attempted to leave nor called for help suggests that he did not rape her. I'm highly confused by what you're trying to say here. Are you saying that in situations where there isn't enough evidence a crime simply did not take place rather than being insufficient evidence to prove it? There is a huge difference between "you can't prove you were raped so we can't convict the guy" and "you weren't raped", even though in both cases nobody goes to jail. Saying that a crime needs proof that it happened to be a crime is absurd.
The man was found not guilty not because of lack of evidence (although he probably would have been found not guilty on those grounds anyway) but because under German law you are allowed to ignore a "no, I do not consent to sex" as long as force or the threat of force is not used. That is what people are complaining about, that simply ignoring non consent doesn't qualify as a rape. Nobody is saying that in every case that turns into her word against his we should convict the guy but defining rape as something narrower than nonconsensual sex is ridiculous, if someone had sex with you against your will you were raped, regardless of whether or not you tried to escape and regardless of whether or not you can prove it.
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On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote:Show nested quote +On September 16 2012 06:09 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 16:37 Hryul wrote:On September 15 2012 07:30 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 00:16 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 20:29 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 17:18 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 08:16 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote:On September 14 2012 01:56 sunprince wrote: [quote]
Based on Google Translate, the defendant did not act violently, did not threaten her, and she neither chose to leave nor to scream for help. In other words, there's no evidence of rape at all.
So how exactly did people conclude she was raped? Because she didn't consent to the sex. Especially considering that she is 15 and he is 31 and according to the two other women who were with them he becomes violent if they don't do what he tells them to do, it's quite possible that she felt defenseless (even if she objectively could have screamed for help or run away) and that's why she didn't fight back. You missed the point completely. To restate, what evidence is there that she didn't consent? On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote: But apparently, according to german law, saying "no" isn't enough of not consenting.
Pretty sure the issue is that there's no evidence she said "no" in the first place. I'm not sure what your point is here. Are you saying that there isn't enough evidence that she didn't consent to convict the guy? If so, read the post you're quoting again, the law came to the exact same conclusion so there's no dispute there. Or are you saying that you can't possibly be raped if you could have screamed and didn't? I think that statement massively misunderstands how traumatic rape is and how people respond to it. Maybe she was raped and maybe she wasn't but the facts are that there was just her word against his so he was found not guilty and that's fine. According to JustPassingBy there is great moral outrage over the court's decision. My point is that if there is indeed no evidence, I'm not seeing why "all sides in Germany" think this decision was morally wrong. If I missed something in the article it would be great if a German speaker could point that out. According to the poster above the issue isn't that he was found not guilty in a her word against his case but that simply saying "no, I do not want to have sex with you" isn't deemed non consent, you actually need to physically resist. I agree that that misunderstands how a significant number of rapes play out and fails to protect the victim. That definition of rape plays into the "legitimate rape" myth in which a chaste and virtuous young woman is attacked within her home by a stranger and fails to fight him off. Ignoring a verbal refusal should be enough to classify it as rape, if a man hears "stop" and doesn't stop then I have no sympathy for him. It sounds like what happened is that she said that she told him "no". However, there's no evidence to corroborate this, and in fact, the evidence contradicts this. Not to mention the fact that there can be relevant context that the article didn't discuss, such as a girl saying "no" yet changing her mind afterward, or saying "no" in a non-literal (such as playful or sarcastic) manner. What's going on is that the outraged people are just taking her at her word and forgetting all about little concepts like innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt. On September 15 2012 05:36 Reason wrote: The above comment though applies to all law. So many stupid sentences passed and so many guilty people let free... it is very frustrating sometimes but I guess all we can do is make a concious effort to gradually improve the process. "Better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer." Please read this where you can find a translation of the article. The man was set free because in german law either a threat, an imminent danger or helplessness is mandatory for "rape". According to the Court she could have run away because the door was not locked or cry for help. The problem is that many german newspapers are utter trash and confused "didn't resist enough" (wrong) with "wasn't helpless" (actual reason). I did read that already. The point I'm making is that a threat, imminent danger, or helplessness is mandatory because otherwise, it's a he-said, she-said situation where there's no evidence. The man was found not guilty because there's no proof beyond a reasonable doubt that he raped her. In fact, the evidence that she neither attempted to leave nor called for help suggests that he did not rape her. I'm highly confused by what you're trying to say here. Are you saying that in situations where there isn't enough evidence a crime simply did not take place rather than being insufficient evidence to prove it? There is a huge difference between "you can't prove you were raped so we can't convict the guy" and "you weren't raped", even though in both cases nobody goes to jail. Saying that a crime needs proof that it happened to be a crime is absurd.
No, I'm saying that it would be a logical failure to assume that a rape occurred simply based on one person's testimony when there is no evidence to corroborate that claim. Just as a good scientific skeptic wouldn't assume that God is real because someone said that they met God, or that a person is a war hero simply because they say so, it is insufficient to determine that a rape took place simply based on the alleged victim's testimony that they did not give consent.
In other words, a crime doesn't need proof that it happened to be a crime, but it needs proof for law enforcement, the courts, the government, and other people to agree that it happened. Just like global warming might be happening regardless of whether it's been proven, but we needed evidence before it's reasonable to believe that it is.
On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote: The man was found not guilty not because of lack of evidence (although he probably would have been found not guilty on those grounds anyway) but because under German law you are allowed to ignore a "no, I do not consent to sex" as long as force or the threat of force is not used. That is what people are complaining about, that simply ignoring non consent doesn't qualify as a rape. Nobody is saying that in every case that turns into her word against his we should convict the guy but defining rape as something narrower than nonconsensual sex is ridiculous, if someone had sex with you against your will you were raped, regardless of whether or not you tried to escape and regardless of whether or not you can prove it.
The point here is that if the only evidence available is the alleged victim's claim of verbal non-consent, then there is not enough evidence for any reasonable person to conclude that a rape occurred.
If the alleged victim's testimony is true, then a rape in fact did occur. However, whether or not that testimony is true is the whole crux of the issue.
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United States41979 Posts
On September 18 2012 09:49 sunprince wrote:Show nested quote +On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote:On September 16 2012 06:09 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 16:37 Hryul wrote:On September 15 2012 07:30 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 00:16 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 20:29 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 17:18 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 08:16 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote: [quote]
Because she didn't consent to the sex.
Especially considering that she is 15 and he is 31 and according to the two other women who were with them he becomes violent if they don't do what he tells them to do, it's quite possible that she felt defenseless (even if she objectively could have screamed for help or run away) and that's why she didn't fight back. You missed the point completely. To restate, what evidence is there that she didn't consent? On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote: But apparently, according to german law, saying "no" isn't enough of not consenting.
Pretty sure the issue is that there's no evidence she said "no" in the first place. I'm not sure what your point is here. Are you saying that there isn't enough evidence that she didn't consent to convict the guy? If so, read the post you're quoting again, the law came to the exact same conclusion so there's no dispute there. Or are you saying that you can't possibly be raped if you could have screamed and didn't? I think that statement massively misunderstands how traumatic rape is and how people respond to it. Maybe she was raped and maybe she wasn't but the facts are that there was just her word against his so he was found not guilty and that's fine. According to JustPassingBy there is great moral outrage over the court's decision. My point is that if there is indeed no evidence, I'm not seeing why "all sides in Germany" think this decision was morally wrong. If I missed something in the article it would be great if a German speaker could point that out. According to the poster above the issue isn't that he was found not guilty in a her word against his case but that simply saying "no, I do not want to have sex with you" isn't deemed non consent, you actually need to physically resist. I agree that that misunderstands how a significant number of rapes play out and fails to protect the victim. That definition of rape plays into the "legitimate rape" myth in which a chaste and virtuous young woman is attacked within her home by a stranger and fails to fight him off. Ignoring a verbal refusal should be enough to classify it as rape, if a man hears "stop" and doesn't stop then I have no sympathy for him. It sounds like what happened is that she said that she told him "no". However, there's no evidence to corroborate this, and in fact, the evidence contradicts this. Not to mention the fact that there can be relevant context that the article didn't discuss, such as a girl saying "no" yet changing her mind afterward, or saying "no" in a non-literal (such as playful or sarcastic) manner. What's going on is that the outraged people are just taking her at her word and forgetting all about little concepts like innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt. On September 15 2012 05:36 Reason wrote: The above comment though applies to all law. So many stupid sentences passed and so many guilty people let free... it is very frustrating sometimes but I guess all we can do is make a concious effort to gradually improve the process. "Better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer." Please read this where you can find a translation of the article. The man was set free because in german law either a threat, an imminent danger or helplessness is mandatory for "rape". According to the Court she could have run away because the door was not locked or cry for help. The problem is that many german newspapers are utter trash and confused "didn't resist enough" (wrong) with "wasn't helpless" (actual reason). I did read that already. The point I'm making is that a threat, imminent danger, or helplessness is mandatory because otherwise, it's a he-said, she-said situation where there's no evidence. The man was found not guilty because there's no proof beyond a reasonable doubt that he raped her. In fact, the evidence that she neither attempted to leave nor called for help suggests that he did not rape her. I'm highly confused by what you're trying to say here. Are you saying that in situations where there isn't enough evidence a crime simply did not take place rather than being insufficient evidence to prove it? There is a huge difference between "you can't prove you were raped so we can't convict the guy" and "you weren't raped", even though in both cases nobody goes to jail. Saying that a crime needs proof that it happened to be a crime is absurd. No, I'm saying that it would be a logical failure to assume that a rape occurred simply based on one person's testimony when there is no evidence to corroborate that claim. Just as a good scientific skeptic wouldn't assume that God is real because someone said that they met God, or that a person is a war hero simply because they say so, it is insufficient to determine that a rape took place simply based on the alleged victim's testimony that they did not give consent. In other words, a crime doesn't need proof that it happened to be a crime, but it needs proof for law enforcement, the courts, the government, and other people to agree that it happened. Just like global warming might be happening regardless of whether it's been proven, but we needed evidence before it's reasonable to believe that it is. Show nested quote +On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote: The man was found not guilty not because of lack of evidence (although he probably would have been found not guilty on those grounds anyway) but because under German law you are allowed to ignore a "no, I do not consent to sex" as long as force or the threat of force is not used. That is what people are complaining about, that simply ignoring non consent doesn't qualify as a rape. Nobody is saying that in every case that turns into her word against his we should convict the guy but defining rape as something narrower than nonconsensual sex is ridiculous, if someone had sex with you against your will you were raped, regardless of whether or not you tried to escape and regardless of whether or not you can prove it. The point here is that if the only evidence available is the alleged victim's claim of verbal non-consent, then there is not enough evidence for any reasonable person to conclude that a rape occurred. If the alleged victim's testimony is true, then a rape in fact did occur. However, whether or not that testimony is true is the whole crux of the issue. But that's not the situation in Germany under current laws. Under current laws the alleged victims testimony that she explicitly did not consent to sex can be true and it still not be a rape provided the rape was not violent. Rape has been defined more narrowly than unconsensual sex. It's not about whether or not you can prove it, that's a matter for the courts, it's what the definition of the crime is. Surely you can understand that defining rape as something narrower than sex despite the non consent of the other party is wrong. It doesn't mean giving ground on the quality of evidence needed to convict etc.
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On September 18 2012 14:14 KwarK wrote:Show nested quote +On September 18 2012 09:49 sunprince wrote:On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote:On September 16 2012 06:09 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 16:37 Hryul wrote:On September 15 2012 07:30 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 00:16 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 20:29 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 17:18 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 08:16 sunprince wrote: [quote]
You missed the point completely.
To restate, what evidence is there that she didn't consent?
[quote]
Pretty sure the issue is that there's no evidence she said "no" in the first place. I'm not sure what your point is here. Are you saying that there isn't enough evidence that she didn't consent to convict the guy? If so, read the post you're quoting again, the law came to the exact same conclusion so there's no dispute there. Or are you saying that you can't possibly be raped if you could have screamed and didn't? I think that statement massively misunderstands how traumatic rape is and how people respond to it. Maybe she was raped and maybe she wasn't but the facts are that there was just her word against his so he was found not guilty and that's fine. According to JustPassingBy there is great moral outrage over the court's decision. My point is that if there is indeed no evidence, I'm not seeing why "all sides in Germany" think this decision was morally wrong. If I missed something in the article it would be great if a German speaker could point that out. According to the poster above the issue isn't that he was found not guilty in a her word against his case but that simply saying "no, I do not want to have sex with you" isn't deemed non consent, you actually need to physically resist. I agree that that misunderstands how a significant number of rapes play out and fails to protect the victim. That definition of rape plays into the "legitimate rape" myth in which a chaste and virtuous young woman is attacked within her home by a stranger and fails to fight him off. Ignoring a verbal refusal should be enough to classify it as rape, if a man hears "stop" and doesn't stop then I have no sympathy for him. It sounds like what happened is that she said that she told him "no". However, there's no evidence to corroborate this, and in fact, the evidence contradicts this. Not to mention the fact that there can be relevant context that the article didn't discuss, such as a girl saying "no" yet changing her mind afterward, or saying "no" in a non-literal (such as playful or sarcastic) manner. What's going on is that the outraged people are just taking her at her word and forgetting all about little concepts like innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt. On September 15 2012 05:36 Reason wrote: The above comment though applies to all law. So many stupid sentences passed and so many guilty people let free... it is very frustrating sometimes but I guess all we can do is make a concious effort to gradually improve the process. "Better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer." Please read this where you can find a translation of the article. The man was set free because in german law either a threat, an imminent danger or helplessness is mandatory for "rape". According to the Court she could have run away because the door was not locked or cry for help. The problem is that many german newspapers are utter trash and confused "didn't resist enough" (wrong) with "wasn't helpless" (actual reason). I did read that already. The point I'm making is that a threat, imminent danger, or helplessness is mandatory because otherwise, it's a he-said, she-said situation where there's no evidence. The man was found not guilty because there's no proof beyond a reasonable doubt that he raped her. In fact, the evidence that she neither attempted to leave nor called for help suggests that he did not rape her. I'm highly confused by what you're trying to say here. Are you saying that in situations where there isn't enough evidence a crime simply did not take place rather than being insufficient evidence to prove it? There is a huge difference between "you can't prove you were raped so we can't convict the guy" and "you weren't raped", even though in both cases nobody goes to jail. Saying that a crime needs proof that it happened to be a crime is absurd. No, I'm saying that it would be a logical failure to assume that a rape occurred simply based on one person's testimony when there is no evidence to corroborate that claim. Just as a good scientific skeptic wouldn't assume that God is real because someone said that they met God, or that a person is a war hero simply because they say so, it is insufficient to determine that a rape took place simply based on the alleged victim's testimony that they did not give consent. In other words, a crime doesn't need proof that it happened to be a crime, but it needs proof for law enforcement, the courts, the government, and other people to agree that it happened. Just like global warming might be happening regardless of whether it's been proven, but we needed evidence before it's reasonable to believe that it is. On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote: The man was found not guilty not because of lack of evidence (although he probably would have been found not guilty on those grounds anyway) but because under German law you are allowed to ignore a "no, I do not consent to sex" as long as force or the threat of force is not used. That is what people are complaining about, that simply ignoring non consent doesn't qualify as a rape. Nobody is saying that in every case that turns into her word against his we should convict the guy but defining rape as something narrower than nonconsensual sex is ridiculous, if someone had sex with you against your will you were raped, regardless of whether or not you tried to escape and regardless of whether or not you can prove it. The point here is that if the only evidence available is the alleged victim's claim of verbal non-consent, then there is not enough evidence for any reasonable person to conclude that a rape occurred. If the alleged victim's testimony is true, then a rape in fact did occur. However, whether or not that testimony is true is the whole crux of the issue. But that's not the situation in Germany under current laws. Under current laws the alleged victims testimony that she explicitly did not consent to sex can be true and it still not be a rape provided the rape was not violent. Rape has been defined more narrowly than unconsensual sex. It's not about whether or not you can prove it, that's a matter for the courts, it's what the definition of the crime is. Surely you can understand that defining rape as something narrower than sex despite the non consent of the other party is wrong. It doesn't mean giving ground on the quality of evidence needed to convict etc.
Except, how can you ever prove that the alleged victim's testimony was true, or not taken out of context? Any evidence which would corroborate this would itself be sufficient evidence that a rape took place.
This isn't a law that redefines rape, it's a legal restriction on evidence, similar to hearsay laws.
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On September 18 2012 14:55 sunprince wrote:Show nested quote +On September 18 2012 14:14 KwarK wrote:On September 18 2012 09:49 sunprince wrote:On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote:On September 16 2012 06:09 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 16:37 Hryul wrote:On September 15 2012 07:30 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 00:16 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 20:29 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 17:18 KwarK wrote: [quote] I'm not sure what your point is here. Are you saying that there isn't enough evidence that she didn't consent to convict the guy? If so, read the post you're quoting again, the law came to the exact same conclusion so there's no dispute there. Or are you saying that you can't possibly be raped if you could have screamed and didn't? I think that statement massively misunderstands how traumatic rape is and how people respond to it.
Maybe she was raped and maybe she wasn't but the facts are that there was just her word against his so he was found not guilty and that's fine. According to JustPassingBy there is great moral outrage over the court's decision. My point is that if there is indeed no evidence, I'm not seeing why "all sides in Germany" think this decision was morally wrong. If I missed something in the article it would be great if a German speaker could point that out. According to the poster above the issue isn't that he was found not guilty in a her word against his case but that simply saying "no, I do not want to have sex with you" isn't deemed non consent, you actually need to physically resist. I agree that that misunderstands how a significant number of rapes play out and fails to protect the victim. That definition of rape plays into the "legitimate rape" myth in which a chaste and virtuous young woman is attacked within her home by a stranger and fails to fight him off. Ignoring a verbal refusal should be enough to classify it as rape, if a man hears "stop" and doesn't stop then I have no sympathy for him. It sounds like what happened is that she said that she told him "no". However, there's no evidence to corroborate this, and in fact, the evidence contradicts this. Not to mention the fact that there can be relevant context that the article didn't discuss, such as a girl saying "no" yet changing her mind afterward, or saying "no" in a non-literal (such as playful or sarcastic) manner. What's going on is that the outraged people are just taking her at her word and forgetting all about little concepts like innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt. On September 15 2012 05:36 Reason wrote: The above comment though applies to all law. So many stupid sentences passed and so many guilty people let free... it is very frustrating sometimes but I guess all we can do is make a concious effort to gradually improve the process. "Better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer." Please read this where you can find a translation of the article. The man was set free because in german law either a threat, an imminent danger or helplessness is mandatory for "rape". According to the Court she could have run away because the door was not locked or cry for help. The problem is that many german newspapers are utter trash and confused "didn't resist enough" (wrong) with "wasn't helpless" (actual reason). I did read that already. The point I'm making is that a threat, imminent danger, or helplessness is mandatory because otherwise, it's a he-said, she-said situation where there's no evidence. The man was found not guilty because there's no proof beyond a reasonable doubt that he raped her. In fact, the evidence that she neither attempted to leave nor called for help suggests that he did not rape her. I'm highly confused by what you're trying to say here. Are you saying that in situations where there isn't enough evidence a crime simply did not take place rather than being insufficient evidence to prove it? There is a huge difference between "you can't prove you were raped so we can't convict the guy" and "you weren't raped", even though in both cases nobody goes to jail. Saying that a crime needs proof that it happened to be a crime is absurd. No, I'm saying that it would be a logical failure to assume that a rape occurred simply based on one person's testimony when there is no evidence to corroborate that claim. Just as a good scientific skeptic wouldn't assume that God is real because someone said that they met God, or that a person is a war hero simply because they say so, it is insufficient to determine that a rape took place simply based on the alleged victim's testimony that they did not give consent. In other words, a crime doesn't need proof that it happened to be a crime, but it needs proof for law enforcement, the courts, the government, and other people to agree that it happened. Just like global warming might be happening regardless of whether it's been proven, but we needed evidence before it's reasonable to believe that it is. On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote: The man was found not guilty not because of lack of evidence (although he probably would have been found not guilty on those grounds anyway) but because under German law you are allowed to ignore a "no, I do not consent to sex" as long as force or the threat of force is not used. That is what people are complaining about, that simply ignoring non consent doesn't qualify as a rape. Nobody is saying that in every case that turns into her word against his we should convict the guy but defining rape as something narrower than nonconsensual sex is ridiculous, if someone had sex with you against your will you were raped, regardless of whether or not you tried to escape and regardless of whether or not you can prove it. The point here is that if the only evidence available is the alleged victim's claim of verbal non-consent, then there is not enough evidence for any reasonable person to conclude that a rape occurred. If the alleged victim's testimony is true, then a rape in fact did occur. However, whether or not that testimony is true is the whole crux of the issue. But that's not the situation in Germany under current laws. Under current laws the alleged victims testimony that she explicitly did not consent to sex can be true and it still not be a rape provided the rape was not violent. Rape has been defined more narrowly than unconsensual sex. It's not about whether or not you can prove it, that's a matter for the courts, it's what the definition of the crime is. Surely you can understand that defining rape as something narrower than sex despite the non consent of the other party is wrong. It doesn't mean giving ground on the quality of evidence needed to convict etc. Except, how can you ever prove that the alleged victim's testimony was true, or not taken out of context? Any evidence which would corroborate this would itself be sufficient evidence that a rape took place. This isn't a law that redefines rape, it's a legal restriction on evidence, similar to hearsay laws.
Just imagine a situation where everything was filmed by a security camera or something like that. Even if you could clearly hear that she didn't consent, it would still not be considered rape because it wasn't violent.
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On September 18 2012 17:23 Sandtrout wrote:Show nested quote +On September 18 2012 14:55 sunprince wrote:On September 18 2012 14:14 KwarK wrote:On September 18 2012 09:49 sunprince wrote:On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote:On September 16 2012 06:09 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 16:37 Hryul wrote:On September 15 2012 07:30 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 00:16 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 20:29 sunprince wrote: [quote]
According to JustPassingBy there is great moral outrage over the court's decision.
My point is that if there is indeed no evidence, I'm not seeing why "all sides in Germany" think this decision was morally wrong. If I missed something in the article it would be great if a German speaker could point that out. According to the poster above the issue isn't that he was found not guilty in a her word against his case but that simply saying "no, I do not want to have sex with you" isn't deemed non consent, you actually need to physically resist. I agree that that misunderstands how a significant number of rapes play out and fails to protect the victim. That definition of rape plays into the "legitimate rape" myth in which a chaste and virtuous young woman is attacked within her home by a stranger and fails to fight him off. Ignoring a verbal refusal should be enough to classify it as rape, if a man hears "stop" and doesn't stop then I have no sympathy for him. It sounds like what happened is that she said that she told him "no". However, there's no evidence to corroborate this, and in fact, the evidence contradicts this. Not to mention the fact that there can be relevant context that the article didn't discuss, such as a girl saying "no" yet changing her mind afterward, or saying "no" in a non-literal (such as playful or sarcastic) manner. What's going on is that the outraged people are just taking her at her word and forgetting all about little concepts like innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt. On September 15 2012 05:36 Reason wrote: The above comment though applies to all law. So many stupid sentences passed and so many guilty people let free... it is very frustrating sometimes but I guess all we can do is make a concious effort to gradually improve the process. "Better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer." Please read this where you can find a translation of the article. The man was set free because in german law either a threat, an imminent danger or helplessness is mandatory for "rape". According to the Court she could have run away because the door was not locked or cry for help. The problem is that many german newspapers are utter trash and confused "didn't resist enough" (wrong) with "wasn't helpless" (actual reason). I did read that already. The point I'm making is that a threat, imminent danger, or helplessness is mandatory because otherwise, it's a he-said, she-said situation where there's no evidence. The man was found not guilty because there's no proof beyond a reasonable doubt that he raped her. In fact, the evidence that she neither attempted to leave nor called for help suggests that he did not rape her. I'm highly confused by what you're trying to say here. Are you saying that in situations where there isn't enough evidence a crime simply did not take place rather than being insufficient evidence to prove it? There is a huge difference between "you can't prove you were raped so we can't convict the guy" and "you weren't raped", even though in both cases nobody goes to jail. Saying that a crime needs proof that it happened to be a crime is absurd. No, I'm saying that it would be a logical failure to assume that a rape occurred simply based on one person's testimony when there is no evidence to corroborate that claim. Just as a good scientific skeptic wouldn't assume that God is real because someone said that they met God, or that a person is a war hero simply because they say so, it is insufficient to determine that a rape took place simply based on the alleged victim's testimony that they did not give consent. In other words, a crime doesn't need proof that it happened to be a crime, but it needs proof for law enforcement, the courts, the government, and other people to agree that it happened. Just like global warming might be happening regardless of whether it's been proven, but we needed evidence before it's reasonable to believe that it is. On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote: The man was found not guilty not because of lack of evidence (although he probably would have been found not guilty on those grounds anyway) but because under German law you are allowed to ignore a "no, I do not consent to sex" as long as force or the threat of force is not used. That is what people are complaining about, that simply ignoring non consent doesn't qualify as a rape. Nobody is saying that in every case that turns into her word against his we should convict the guy but defining rape as something narrower than nonconsensual sex is ridiculous, if someone had sex with you against your will you were raped, regardless of whether or not you tried to escape and regardless of whether or not you can prove it. The point here is that if the only evidence available is the alleged victim's claim of verbal non-consent, then there is not enough evidence for any reasonable person to conclude that a rape occurred. If the alleged victim's testimony is true, then a rape in fact did occur. However, whether or not that testimony is true is the whole crux of the issue. But that's not the situation in Germany under current laws. Under current laws the alleged victims testimony that she explicitly did not consent to sex can be true and it still not be a rape provided the rape was not violent. Rape has been defined more narrowly than unconsensual sex. It's not about whether or not you can prove it, that's a matter for the courts, it's what the definition of the crime is. Surely you can understand that defining rape as something narrower than sex despite the non consent of the other party is wrong. It doesn't mean giving ground on the quality of evidence needed to convict etc. Except, how can you ever prove that the alleged victim's testimony was true, or not taken out of context? Any evidence which would corroborate this would itself be sufficient evidence that a rape took place. This isn't a law that redefines rape, it's a legal restriction on evidence, similar to hearsay laws. Just imagine a situation where everything was filmed by a security camera or something like that. Even if you could clearly hear that she didn't consent, it would still not be considered rape because it wasn't violent.
If there was no imminent danger, threat, or helplessness, then how exactly do you think a security camera would show that there is rape? If none of those criteria are fulfilled, then how would a court differentiate between a situation where an alleged victim says no and means it, and where they say it and don't mean it (i.e. roleplay, sarcasm, playful joking, wanting you to change their mind, etc)?
Consent is a complicated legal topic, and suggesting that it should be based it only upon explicit verbal consent betrays extreme naivete about the subtle realities of human sexual interaction. If a woman is lying naked on a man's bed with open/accepting body language, beckons him over, says, "Please don't fuck me," giggles, then spreads her legs apart while looking at him coquettishly, then the law certainly shouldn't define this as rape. In Japanese culture, women typically say no when they mean yes and are actually advised not to do so when in intercultural relationships with Westerners. In Western culture, there are ways to say no that mean no and ways to say no that don't mean no; further, displaying the social skills to determine which is often used by women as a criteria of sexual fitness. And so on.
The idea that women aren't adult agents who are capable of acting in some way when being raped is an incredibly infantilizing, misogynistic notion. I for one believe that women are capable of clearly expressing nonconsent, at least when they're sober adults with mental/emotional capacities to match. Why does everyone insist on denigrating women as incompetent children?
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United States41979 Posts
On September 18 2012 14:55 sunprince wrote:Show nested quote +On September 18 2012 14:14 KwarK wrote:On September 18 2012 09:49 sunprince wrote:On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote:On September 16 2012 06:09 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 16:37 Hryul wrote:On September 15 2012 07:30 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 00:16 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 20:29 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 17:18 KwarK wrote: [quote] I'm not sure what your point is here. Are you saying that there isn't enough evidence that she didn't consent to convict the guy? If so, read the post you're quoting again, the law came to the exact same conclusion so there's no dispute there. Or are you saying that you can't possibly be raped if you could have screamed and didn't? I think that statement massively misunderstands how traumatic rape is and how people respond to it.
Maybe she was raped and maybe she wasn't but the facts are that there was just her word against his so he was found not guilty and that's fine. According to JustPassingBy there is great moral outrage over the court's decision. My point is that if there is indeed no evidence, I'm not seeing why "all sides in Germany" think this decision was morally wrong. If I missed something in the article it would be great if a German speaker could point that out. According to the poster above the issue isn't that he was found not guilty in a her word against his case but that simply saying "no, I do not want to have sex with you" isn't deemed non consent, you actually need to physically resist. I agree that that misunderstands how a significant number of rapes play out and fails to protect the victim. That definition of rape plays into the "legitimate rape" myth in which a chaste and virtuous young woman is attacked within her home by a stranger and fails to fight him off. Ignoring a verbal refusal should be enough to classify it as rape, if a man hears "stop" and doesn't stop then I have no sympathy for him. It sounds like what happened is that she said that she told him "no". However, there's no evidence to corroborate this, and in fact, the evidence contradicts this. Not to mention the fact that there can be relevant context that the article didn't discuss, such as a girl saying "no" yet changing her mind afterward, or saying "no" in a non-literal (such as playful or sarcastic) manner. What's going on is that the outraged people are just taking her at her word and forgetting all about little concepts like innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt. On September 15 2012 05:36 Reason wrote: The above comment though applies to all law. So many stupid sentences passed and so many guilty people let free... it is very frustrating sometimes but I guess all we can do is make a concious effort to gradually improve the process. "Better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer." Please read this where you can find a translation of the article. The man was set free because in german law either a threat, an imminent danger or helplessness is mandatory for "rape". According to the Court she could have run away because the door was not locked or cry for help. The problem is that many german newspapers are utter trash and confused "didn't resist enough" (wrong) with "wasn't helpless" (actual reason). I did read that already. The point I'm making is that a threat, imminent danger, or helplessness is mandatory because otherwise, it's a he-said, she-said situation where there's no evidence. The man was found not guilty because there's no proof beyond a reasonable doubt that he raped her. In fact, the evidence that she neither attempted to leave nor called for help suggests that he did not rape her. I'm highly confused by what you're trying to say here. Are you saying that in situations where there isn't enough evidence a crime simply did not take place rather than being insufficient evidence to prove it? There is a huge difference between "you can't prove you were raped so we can't convict the guy" and "you weren't raped", even though in both cases nobody goes to jail. Saying that a crime needs proof that it happened to be a crime is absurd. No, I'm saying that it would be a logical failure to assume that a rape occurred simply based on one person's testimony when there is no evidence to corroborate that claim. Just as a good scientific skeptic wouldn't assume that God is real because someone said that they met God, or that a person is a war hero simply because they say so, it is insufficient to determine that a rape took place simply based on the alleged victim's testimony that they did not give consent. In other words, a crime doesn't need proof that it happened to be a crime, but it needs proof for law enforcement, the courts, the government, and other people to agree that it happened. Just like global warming might be happening regardless of whether it's been proven, but we needed evidence before it's reasonable to believe that it is. On September 18 2012 06:20 KwarK wrote: The man was found not guilty not because of lack of evidence (although he probably would have been found not guilty on those grounds anyway) but because under German law you are allowed to ignore a "no, I do not consent to sex" as long as force or the threat of force is not used. That is what people are complaining about, that simply ignoring non consent doesn't qualify as a rape. Nobody is saying that in every case that turns into her word against his we should convict the guy but defining rape as something narrower than nonconsensual sex is ridiculous, if someone had sex with you against your will you were raped, regardless of whether or not you tried to escape and regardless of whether or not you can prove it. The point here is that if the only evidence available is the alleged victim's claim of verbal non-consent, then there is not enough evidence for any reasonable person to conclude that a rape occurred. If the alleged victim's testimony is true, then a rape in fact did occur. However, whether or not that testimony is true is the whole crux of the issue. But that's not the situation in Germany under current laws. Under current laws the alleged victims testimony that she explicitly did not consent to sex can be true and it still not be a rape provided the rape was not violent. Rape has been defined more narrowly than unconsensual sex. It's not about whether or not you can prove it, that's a matter for the courts, it's what the definition of the crime is. Surely you can understand that defining rape as something narrower than sex despite the non consent of the other party is wrong. It doesn't mean giving ground on the quality of evidence needed to convict etc. Except, how can you ever prove that the alleged victim's testimony was true, or not taken out of context? Any evidence which would corroborate this would itself be sufficient evidence that a rape took place. This isn't a law that redefines rape, it's a legal restriction on evidence, similar to hearsay laws. You keep asking me how I would prove it in the case of such a rape. I wouldn't prove it and I wouldn't convict the guy if that was all I had to go on. It would be the alleged victim alleging that the alleged rapist raped her and the rapist denying it and the judicial system recommending that taking it to court would not be in the public interest due to not having a real case or it being thrown out of court. I have no desire to convict innocents or accept the word of one person over that of another.
However the idea that the testimony of the victim who says ""I said do not have sex with me" and he had sex with me anyway" is evidence of a rape. By itself it's not enough evidence to convict if he denies it but the idea that it's not evidence is absurd. Even if you believe that a witness who was intimately involved in the act giving their testimony isn't evidence I still don't get why you need to redefine the crime so that the crime doesn't exist unless you have evidence for it. Proving it is the preserve of the legal system, defining it is something entirely unrelated.
If the one person doesn't consent to sex and another person has sex with them anyway then a rape occurred. It should be that simple. I know you basically negate everything the anti-rape people on tl say but this one is a no brainer surely. I'm not arguing that we should imprison innocents or believe women over men or any of that stuff, I'm saying that when one person expresses verbal non-consent to sex and the other person has sex with them anyway then that is a rape.
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United States41979 Posts
On September 18 2012 18:02 sunprince wrote: The idea that women aren't adult agents who are capable of acting in some way when being raped is an incredibly infantilizing, misogynistic notion. I for one believe that women are capable of clearly expressing nonconsent, at least when they're sober adults with mental/emotional capacities to match. Why does everyone insist on denigrating women as incompetent children? A lot of adult humans react in shock to personal violation. I don't believe it is in the least bit misogynistic to accept the possibility of a woman being paralysed by the realisation that she is in the same room as someone who is ignoring her clearly expressed non consent. We tend to live in this fantasy world where it's safe and we're in control of our own lives and ignore the fact that at any time someone could just choose to run us down with a car or stab us for no reason because we typically don't have to deal with that kind of shit. Think about that moment of realisation that you've lost control of your body, that the social rules about conduct and not imposing and abusing each other are simply not being followed and that the other person does not respect them and could do literally anything to you. Do you not think that shock, especially on a 15 year old in this German case, could cause the lack of a physical fight? Do you not think that physically confronting the rapist or screaming might seem an absolutely terrifying prospect, he's already showed that he's willing to do break the rules and doesn't care about you.
Your idea of rape is a fantasy and insisting that the victim needs to meet your requirements of resistance for it to qualify as a rape, even though someone is forcing sex upon them against their will, is absolutely despicable. You're not stopping at "you can't prove you were raped", you're going with "you weren't raped, even though he forced sex upon you, because you didn't do enough to stop it". It's disgusting.
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On September 15 2012 07:30 sunprince wrote:Show nested quote +On September 15 2012 00:16 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 20:29 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 17:18 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 08:16 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote:On September 14 2012 01:56 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 01:46 JustPassingBy wrote:*bump* In Germany, a man was sentenced non-guilty, because the girl he is said to have raped did not fight back. german source: http://www.spiegel.de/panorama/justiz/vorwurf-der-vergewaltigung-landgericht-essen-spricht-angeklagten-frei-a-855639.htmlGerman definition of rape includes something about violence, or threats, or being defenseless and according to the judge, the victim was not defenseless, as she could've shouted for help or run away but did neither. The literal translation of the "defenseless" clause is something like "abusing a situation in which the victim is defenseless at the mercy of the offender. edit: two facts upon which the sentence is based: 1. the door was open, so she could've escaped 2. there were people in the other apartments of the house, so her screams would've been heard. All sides in Germany are aware that the sentence is legally correct, but not morally. The article I stated talked about "men vs law". Based on Google Translate, the defendant did not act violently, did not threaten her, and she neither chose to leave nor to scream for help. In other words, there's no evidence of rape at all. So how exactly did people conclude she was raped? Because she didn't consent to the sex. Especially considering that she is 15 and he is 31 and according to the two other women who were with them he becomes violent if they don't do what he tells them to do, it's quite possible that she felt defenseless (even if she objectively could have screamed for help or run away) and that's why she didn't fight back. You missed the point completely. To restate, what evidence is there that she didn't consent? On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote: But apparently, according to german law, saying "no" isn't enough of not consenting.
Pretty sure the issue is that there's no evidence she said "no" in the first place. I'm not sure what your point is here. Are you saying that there isn't enough evidence that she didn't consent to convict the guy? If so, read the post you're quoting again, the law came to the exact same conclusion so there's no dispute there. Or are you saying that you can't possibly be raped if you could have screamed and didn't? I think that statement massively misunderstands how traumatic rape is and how people respond to it. Maybe she was raped and maybe she wasn't but the facts are that there was just her word against his so he was found not guilty and that's fine. According to JustPassingBy there is great moral outrage over the court's decision. My point is that if there is indeed no evidence, I'm not seeing why "all sides in Germany" think this decision was morally wrong. If I missed something in the article it would be great if a German speaker could point that out. According to the poster above the issue isn't that he was found not guilty in a her word against his case but that simply saying "no, I do not want to have sex with you" isn't deemed non consent, you actually need to physically resist. I agree that that misunderstands how a significant number of rapes play out and fails to protect the victim. That definition of rape plays into the "legitimate rape" myth in which a chaste and virtuous young woman is attacked within her home by a stranger and fails to fight him off. Ignoring a verbal refusal should be enough to classify it as rape, if a man hears "stop" and doesn't stop then I have no sympathy for him. It sounds like what happened is that she said that she told him "no". However, there's no evidence to corroborate this, and in fact, the evidence contradicts this. Not to mention the fact that there can be relevant context that the article didn't discuss, such as a girl saying "no" yet changing her mind afterward, or saying "no" in a non-literal (such as playful or sarcastic) manner. What's going on is that the outraged people are just taking her at her word and forgetting all about little concepts like innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt. Show nested quote +On September 15 2012 05:36 Reason wrote: The above comment though applies to all law. So many stupid sentences passed and so many guilty people let free... it is very frustrating sometimes but I guess all we can do is make a concious effort to gradually improve the process. "Better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer."
What is that? Is that supposed to be profound in some way? The fact is the law system even in the most civilized countries is a complete joke.
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On September 20 2012 23:33 KwarK wrote:Show nested quote +On September 18 2012 18:02 sunprince wrote: The idea that women aren't adult agents who are capable of acting in some way when being raped is an incredibly infantilizing, misogynistic notion. I for one believe that women are capable of clearly expressing nonconsent, at least when they're sober adults with mental/emotional capacities to match. Why does everyone insist on denigrating women as incompetent children? A lot of adult humans react in shock to personal violation. I don't believe it is in the least bit misogynistic to accept the possibility of a woman being paralysed by the realisation that she is in the same room as someone who is ignoring her clearly expressed non consent. We tend to live in this fantasy world where it's safe and we're in control of our own lives and ignore the fact that at any time someone could just choose to run us down with a car or stab us for no reason because we typically don't have to deal with that kind of shit. Think about that moment of realisation that you've lost control of your body, that the social rules about conduct and not imposing and abusing each other are simply not being followed and that the other person does not respect them and could do literally anything to you. Do you not think that shock, especially on a 15 year old in this German case, could cause the lack of a physical fight? Do you not think that physically confronting the rapist or screaming might seem an absolutely terrifying prospect, he's already showed that he's willing to do break the rules and doesn't care about you. Your idea of rape is a fantasy and insisting that the victim needs to meet your requirements of resistance for it to qualify as a rape, even though someone is forcing sex upon them against their will, is absolutely despicable. You're not stopping at "you can't prove you were raped", you're going with "you weren't raped, even though he forced sex upon you, because you didn't do enough to stop it". It's disgusting. I get your point but if you stretch your argument it could backfire. Let's assume you are facing a really fat robber and he draws a knife. Assuming he just stands there and yells: "yo give me your money!" would you hand over the money or simply turn around and run away? Is it too much to ask for someone to run away because you are frightened? Because you didn't expected such a behavior? I guess it boils down to the question of how much resilience we find reasonable from an adult / near adult. + Show Spoiler +Is resilience the right word? resistance? Also: You are allowed to vote at age of 16 at certain elections in germany. E: I also found some links from god_forbids quite insightful especially the article from "the rumpus", but the new crime "behaving in a rapemind fashion" just plain stupid.
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On September 21 2012 04:24 Reason wrote:Show nested quote +On September 15 2012 07:30 sunprince wrote:On September 15 2012 00:16 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 20:29 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 17:18 KwarK wrote:On September 14 2012 08:16 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote:On September 14 2012 01:56 sunprince wrote:On September 14 2012 01:46 JustPassingBy wrote:*bump* In Germany, a man was sentenced non-guilty, because the girl he is said to have raped did not fight back. german source: http://www.spiegel.de/panorama/justiz/vorwurf-der-vergewaltigung-landgericht-essen-spricht-angeklagten-frei-a-855639.htmlGerman definition of rape includes something about violence, or threats, or being defenseless and according to the judge, the victim was not defenseless, as she could've shouted for help or run away but did neither. The literal translation of the "defenseless" clause is something like "abusing a situation in which the victim is defenseless at the mercy of the offender. edit: two facts upon which the sentence is based: 1. the door was open, so she could've escaped 2. there were people in the other apartments of the house, so her screams would've been heard. All sides in Germany are aware that the sentence is legally correct, but not morally. The article I stated talked about "men vs law". Based on Google Translate, the defendant did not act violently, did not threaten her, and she neither chose to leave nor to scream for help. In other words, there's no evidence of rape at all. So how exactly did people conclude she was raped? Because she didn't consent to the sex. Especially considering that she is 15 and he is 31 and according to the two other women who were with them he becomes violent if they don't do what he tells them to do, it's quite possible that she felt defenseless (even if she objectively could have screamed for help or run away) and that's why she didn't fight back. You missed the point completely. To restate, what evidence is there that she didn't consent? On September 14 2012 02:02 Sandtrout wrote: But apparently, according to german law, saying "no" isn't enough of not consenting.
Pretty sure the issue is that there's no evidence she said "no" in the first place. I'm not sure what your point is here. Are you saying that there isn't enough evidence that she didn't consent to convict the guy? If so, read the post you're quoting again, the law came to the exact same conclusion so there's no dispute there. Or are you saying that you can't possibly be raped if you could have screamed and didn't? I think that statement massively misunderstands how traumatic rape is and how people respond to it. Maybe she was raped and maybe she wasn't but the facts are that there was just her word against his so he was found not guilty and that's fine. According to JustPassingBy there is great moral outrage over the court's decision. My point is that if there is indeed no evidence, I'm not seeing why "all sides in Germany" think this decision was morally wrong. If I missed something in the article it would be great if a German speaker could point that out. According to the poster above the issue isn't that he was found not guilty in a her word against his case but that simply saying "no, I do not want to have sex with you" isn't deemed non consent, you actually need to physically resist. I agree that that misunderstands how a significant number of rapes play out and fails to protect the victim. That definition of rape plays into the "legitimate rape" myth in which a chaste and virtuous young woman is attacked within her home by a stranger and fails to fight him off. Ignoring a verbal refusal should be enough to classify it as rape, if a man hears "stop" and doesn't stop then I have no sympathy for him. It sounds like what happened is that she said that she told him "no". However, there's no evidence to corroborate this, and in fact, the evidence contradicts this. Not to mention the fact that there can be relevant context that the article didn't discuss, such as a girl saying "no" yet changing her mind afterward, or saying "no" in a non-literal (such as playful or sarcastic) manner. What's going on is that the outraged people are just taking her at her word and forgetting all about little concepts like innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt. On September 15 2012 05:36 Reason wrote: The above comment though applies to all law. So many stupid sentences passed and so many guilty people let free... it is very frustrating sometimes but I guess all we can do is make a concious effort to gradually improve the process. "Better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer." What is that? Is that supposed to be profound in some way? The fact is the law system even in the most civilized countries is a complete joke.
Blackstone's formulation.
You know, the concept of "innocent until proven guilty" that witch hunters like you have unsuprisingly never heard of?
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On September 20 2012 23:33 KwarK wrote:Show nested quote +On September 18 2012 18:02 sunprince wrote: The idea that women aren't adult agents who are capable of acting in some way when being raped is an incredibly infantilizing, misogynistic notion. I for one believe that women are capable of clearly expressing nonconsent, at least when they're sober adults with mental/emotional capacities to match. Why does everyone insist on denigrating women as incompetent children? A lot of adult humans react in shock to personal violation. I don't believe it is in the least bit misogynistic to accept the possibility of a woman being paralysed by the realisation that she is in the same room as someone who is ignoring her clearly expressed non consent. We tend to live in this fantasy world where it's safe and we're in control of our own lives and ignore the fact that at any time someone could just choose to run us down with a car or stab us for no reason because we typically don't have to deal with that kind of shit. Think about that moment of realisation that you've lost control of your body, that the social rules about conduct and not imposing and abusing each other are simply not being followed and that the other person does not respect them and could do literally anything to you. Do you not think that shock, especially on a 15 year old in this German case, could cause the lack of a physical fight? Do you not think that physically confronting the rapist or screaming might seem an absolutely terrifying prospect, he's already showed that he's willing to do break the rules and doesn't care about you.
If the victim reacted in shock due to personal violation, then one could instead show evidence that there was a reason they were shocked (which typically boils down to something threatening). For example, if a mugger stops you in an alleyway and you freeze up, you could simply demonstrate that they were presenting an explicit or implied threat. The problem here is that there wasn't any evidence of an actual threat, so the question is why did she freeze up? Without any evidence of force or of an actual threat, there's more than enough reasonable doubt to find the defendant not guilty. How exactly did the defendant show that "he's willing to break the rules and doesn't care about you" in this case?
On September 20 2012 23:33 KwarK wrote: Your idea of rape is a fantasy and insisting that the victim needs to meet your requirements of resistance for it to qualify as a rape, even though someone is forcing sex upon them against their will, is absolutely despicable. You're not stopping at "you can't prove you were raped", you're going with "you weren't raped, even though he forced sex upon you, because you didn't do enough to stop it".
No, I'm not. There's a difference between what the court accepts and what actually happened. To use a comparison, hearsay laws prohibits the use of hearsay as evidence that an event occurred. For example, if a witness says "Susan told me Tom was in town," that's not legitimate evidence that Tom was in town. Does that mean Tom wasn't in town? Maybe he was, maybe he wasn't, but for the legal purposes of a court of law, we assume that Tom wasn't in town until there is evidence that he was. Similarly, we don't necessarily know if any particular alleged victim was actually raped or not, but for the purposes of the law and criminal procedure (and also epistemology), the assumption is that they were not until there is evidence that they were.
On September 20 2012 23:33 KwarK wrote: It's disgusting.
Could we keep the discusssion centered on logical arguments rather than emotional ones?
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On September 21 2012 09:37 sunprince wrote:Show nested quote +On September 20 2012 23:33 KwarK wrote:On September 18 2012 18:02 sunprince wrote: The idea that women aren't adult agents who are capable of acting in some way when being raped is an incredibly infantilizing, misogynistic notion. I for one believe that women are capable of clearly expressing nonconsent, at least when they're sober adults with mental/emotional capacities to match. Why does everyone insist on denigrating women as incompetent children? A lot of adult humans react in shock to personal violation. I don't believe it is in the least bit misogynistic to accept the possibility of a woman being paralysed by the realisation that she is in the same room as someone who is ignoring her clearly expressed non consent. We tend to live in this fantasy world where it's safe and we're in control of our own lives and ignore the fact that at any time someone could just choose to run us down with a car or stab us for no reason because we typically don't have to deal with that kind of shit. Think about that moment of realisation that you've lost control of your body, that the social rules about conduct and not imposing and abusing each other are simply not being followed and that the other person does not respect them and could do literally anything to you. Do you not think that shock, especially on a 15 year old in this German case, could cause the lack of a physical fight? Do you not think that physically confronting the rapist or screaming might seem an absolutely terrifying prospect, he's already showed that he's willing to do break the rules and doesn't care about you. If the victim reacted in shock due to personal violation, then one could instead show evidence that there was a reason they were shocked (which typically boils down to something threatening). For example, if a mugger stops you in an alleyway and you freeze up, you could simply demonstrate that they were presenting an explicit or implied threat. The problem here is that there wasn't any evidence of an actual threat, so the question is why did she freeze up? Without any evidence of force or of an actual threat, there's more than enough reasonable doubt to find the defendant not guilty. How exactly did the defendant show that "he's willing to break the rules and doesn't care about you" in this case? Show nested quote +On September 20 2012 23:33 KwarK wrote: Your idea of rape is a fantasy and insisting that the victim needs to meet your requirements of resistance for it to qualify as a rape, even though someone is forcing sex upon them against their will, is absolutely despicable. You're not stopping at "you can't prove you were raped", you're going with "you weren't raped, even though he forced sex upon you, because you didn't do enough to stop it". No, I'm not. There's a difference between what the court accepts and what actually happened. To use a comparison, hearsay laws prohibits the use of hearsay as evidence that an event occurred. For example, if a witness says "Susan told me Tom was in town," that's not legitimate evidence that Tom was in town. Does that mean Tom wasn't in town? Maybe he was, maybe he wasn't, but for the legal purposes of a court of law, we assume that Tom wasn't in town until there is evidence that he was. Similarly, we don't necessarily know if any particular alleged victim was actually raped or not, but for the purposes of the law and criminal procedure (and also epistemology), the assumption is that they were not until there is evidence that they were. Could we keep the discusssion centered on logical arguments rather than emotional ones? I've been following your exchange with Kwark on this topic and I am inclined to agree with you. Presentation and strength of evidence has a lot to do in highly disputed cases such as rape that the entire success or failure of it depends solely on how it is presented.
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Many types of criminal cases relies highly on how the evidence is presented. And?
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