|
On September 16 2010 11:31 Yurebis wrote:Show nested quote +On September 16 2010 11:24 L wrote:On September 16 2010 10:13 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 02:11 L wrote:The rest of your post equivocates so much that I don't feel like answering. Probably because exposing the double standard that ancap proponents need to use in order to get out from under the crushing lack of empirical evidence for their theory is ultimately fatal to your position. But feel free to carry on explicitly ignoring deathblows to your position and pretending to escape unscathed. It actually looks pretty good to people skimming the thread without actually reading properly. Oh hi L Case in point. I really don't think I need empirical proof, as much as an abolitionist didn't. And I already said, there is no double standard, one can desire a state for any number of ends, praxeologically so. Just as much people can jump off buildings thinking they can fly. The role of the libertarian is not to prove that it should always be the case that people will prefer peace, just to argue that peace is a much better means for almost any wants, long term. There's a pretty huge double standard in saying that your empirically derived preferences for a certain social system is superior to the world's entire historical body of knowledge discounting the idea's feasibility.
|
On September 16 2010 12:17 L wrote:Show nested quote +On September 16 2010 11:31 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 11:24 L wrote:On September 16 2010 10:13 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 02:11 L wrote:The rest of your post equivocates so much that I don't feel like answering. Probably because exposing the double standard that ancap proponents need to use in order to get out from under the crushing lack of empirical evidence for their theory is ultimately fatal to your position. But feel free to carry on explicitly ignoring deathblows to your position and pretending to escape unscathed. It actually looks pretty good to people skimming the thread without actually reading properly. Oh hi L Case in point. I really don't think I need empirical proof, as much as an abolitionist didn't. And I already said, there is no double standard, one can desire a state for any number of ends, praxeologically so. Just as much people can jump off buildings thinking they can fly. The role of the libertarian is not to prove that it should always be the case that people will prefer peace, just to argue that peace is a much better means for almost any wants, long term. There's a pretty huge double standard in saying that your empirically derived preferences for a certain social system is superior to the world's entire historical body of knowledge discounting the idea's feasibility. My preferences aren't empirically derived, mostly. Then even if they were, so what? Inventors and investors (oh wow it's almost the same word, never noticed that) throughout history have demonstrated that they can take their preferences, create and develop upon them, and then other people, who never acknowledge such, eventually adopted them too. There is a precedent to outdoing the entire human history, it's called every popular invention ever.
There are unpopular-hence-unsuccessful ones, sure, but if you were to discriminate them a-priori to be either, then no invention could ever become successful ever, because people would conform to the status quo, and nothing new would be done. So please, discuss the merits of ancap without appealing to tradition.
|
On September 16 2010 10:55 Yurebis wrote:Show nested quote +On September 16 2010 10:34 ghrur wrote:On September 16 2010 10:32 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 10:18 ghrur wrote: You know, after I learned about economics a little more, I really appreciate the mathematics involved. So Yurebis, do this for us: Give a hypothesis about an-cap being better using mathematics Prove it.
See, the way most economists put it is like this: You can hide behind semantics, verbose arguments, confusing words, but you can't hide your arguments in mathematics. If you can't put it into math, it's a shitty argument. If it's a shitty argument, it's going to be obvious. So, prove it in math. *More word arguments instead of math* Protip: Start small. Ok. Crusoe economics. Man's wants are W. Man's means are M. Means have inputs and outputs. I and O. Man tries to satisfy W with the most cost-beneficial M. Ex-ante, the evaluation of M's (as maximizers of W's) is called expectation, E. Ex-post, the evaluation of M's is called experience, X. A malinvestment occurs ex-post, when X and E have a considerable mismatch, I'll call it Z. So.. what can be done with this is... W = M - Z W = M - (X-E) Hm I'm not good with math tbh but you can plug in what I said above better Catallactics. Trades only happen when expectations, E, are positive, or in other words, both parties have positive expectations to the satisfaction of their wants in that agreeable means of exchange. So trade only happens when E1*E2>0 Man will never trade when his expectations are negative, and when such an exchange happens, I call it coercion, C. C is E1*E2<=0 The <= is debatable but w/e I'll do more later maybe. Math disgusts me. edit: to add a little something, government intervention necessarily is coercion, because it doesn't let E2 (if the bureaucrat is E1) to express itself, so there's no real E2 to input. The E2 is actually another E1`, or a hunch to what the government thinks people expect. E1` can never be equal to E2, so whatever transaction it is, it is going to be calculated wrong - either too much is being done for an expectation that isn't so positive, or the transaction shouldn't have occured because it's negative. Also because it mixes the costs within those expectations; the state doesn't spend out of its own pocket, it steals from E2 too, lol so it's a huge mess, but to express it I'd have to expand the variables to do that and I just can't figure how atm. And that's just ex-ante
Wait, W=M-X+E? So wants=means+expectations-experience? Why is this? Why is W=M-Z? If Z was 0, we would get all we want? Also, trade happens when E1*E2>0 Define E1 and E2 mathematically. How do you calculate E1 and/or E2? What're the use of I and O? Also, why all the words? Define your variables, and prove! The words aren't operations. I've never heard of a "man will trade" or "man will not trade" operation. Why is E1'=/=E2? Can you define E1' please? And then define E2? And then give a proof using variables to show they cannot possibly be equal? I mean, you're giving a LOT of assumptions here. Proofs usually start with like, 2 axioms or something, and continue on. I have no idea where you get all these things from. o.O
Edit: You shouldn't hate math if your results are logically strong. I mean, math is simply using numbers instead of words to represent logic. It allows for a much more clear, pristine argument. If you wanted to convince us with undeniable logic, use math, because what you prove with mathematics is almost always solid.
|
It is quite ridiculous to think that somehow Anarcho-Capitalism is better than the current system. I am not surprised, however, when academic communities in their theorycrafting bubble see how imperfect the best available system is (the one we have) and decide that going backwards is somehow going forwards.
World history is essentially a history of people not learning from history and cycles of repeating past mistakes over, and over, and over...ugh it is so foolish to think this is better.
|
On September 16 2010 12:39 ghrur wrote:Show nested quote +On September 16 2010 10:55 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 10:34 ghrur wrote:On September 16 2010 10:32 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 10:18 ghrur wrote: You know, after I learned about economics a little more, I really appreciate the mathematics involved. So Yurebis, do this for us: Give a hypothesis about an-cap being better using mathematics Prove it.
See, the way most economists put it is like this: You can hide behind semantics, verbose arguments, confusing words, but you can't hide your arguments in mathematics. If you can't put it into math, it's a shitty argument. If it's a shitty argument, it's going to be obvious. So, prove it in math. *More word arguments instead of math* Protip: Start small. Ok. Crusoe economics. Man's wants are W. Man's means are M. Means have inputs and outputs. I and O. Man tries to satisfy W with the most cost-beneficial M. Ex-ante, the evaluation of M's (as maximizers of W's) is called expectation, E. Ex-post, the evaluation of M's is called experience, X. A malinvestment occurs ex-post, when X and E have a considerable mismatch, I'll call it Z. So.. what can be done with this is... W = M - Z W = M - (X-E) Hm I'm not good with math tbh but you can plug in what I said above better Catallactics. Trades only happen when expectations, E, are positive, or in other words, both parties have positive expectations to the satisfaction of their wants in that agreeable means of exchange. So trade only happens when E1*E2>0 Man will never trade when his expectations are negative, and when such an exchange happens, I call it coercion, C. C is E1*E2<=0 The <= is debatable but w/e I'll do more later maybe. Math disgusts me. edit: to add a little something, government intervention necessarily is coercion, because it doesn't let E2 (if the bureaucrat is E1) to express itself, so there's no real E2 to input. The E2 is actually another E1`, or a hunch to what the government thinks people expect. E1` can never be equal to E2, so whatever transaction it is, it is going to be calculated wrong - either too much is being done for an expectation that isn't so positive, or the transaction shouldn't have occured because it's negative. Also because it mixes the costs within those expectations; the state doesn't spend out of its own pocket, it steals from E2 too, lol so it's a huge mess, but to express it I'd have to expand the variables to do that and I just can't figure how atm. And that's just ex-ante Wait, W=M-X+E? So wants=means+expectations-experience? Why is this? Why is W=M-Z? If Z was 0, we would get all we want? Also, trade happens when E1*E2>0 Define E1 and E2 mathematically. How do you calculate E1 and/or E2? What're the use of I and O? Also, why all the words? Define your variables, and prove! The words aren't operations. I've never heard of a "man will trade" or "man will not trade" operation. Why is E1'=/=E2? Can you define E1' please? And then define E2? And then give a proof using variables to show they cannot possibly be equal? I mean, you're giving a LOT of assumptions here. Proofs usually start with like, 2 axioms or something, and continue on. I have no idea where you get all these things from. o.O Edit: You shouldn't hate math if your results are logically strong. I mean, math is simply using numbers instead of words to represent logic. It allows for a much more clear, pristine argument. If you wanted to convince us with undeniable logic, use math, because what you prove with mathematics is almost always solid. Well I told you that trying to do math with praxeology sounds nutty.
W=M-Z means that 'wants are met through means minus error. Z is better called error Error is the difference between what is expected to happen and what happens., W=M-(X-E) W=M-X+E makes less sense... wants are met with means, minus the experience plus expectancy... hmm yeah something went wrong there. I will think some more on how to put this.
E1 is the expectancy of person 1, E2 that of person 2. And it's not that they can't be equal but... the complexity of human psyche makes it so that it's almost impossible to be so. Not even exact twins who live together all their lives have the exact same expectations. But I think this is the wrong frame to put catallactics on... something is off again.
Yeah well, I wish I could put into math, but it's not an easy thing to do and, to the economists that do, they overaggregate and equivocate a lot, especially when it comes to government spending.
|
On September 16 2010 12:48 0neder wrote: It is quite ridiculous to think that somehow Anarcho-Capitalism is better than the current system. I am not surprised, however, when academic communities in their theorycrafting bubble see how imperfect the best available system is (the one we have) and decide that going backwards is somehow going forwards.
World history is essentially a history of people not learning from history and cycles of repeating past mistakes over, and over, and over...ugh it is so foolish to think this is better. Is private property backwards?
|
Then even if they were, so what? Inventors and investors (oh wow it's almost the same word, never noticed that) throughout history have demonstrated that they can take their preferences, create and develop upon them, and then other people, who never acknowledge such, eventually adopted them too.
This is more like trying to develop a feces launching catapult made out of gold, rubies and diamonds and telling me that a-priori my experiences with feces don't qualify me to tell you that your development is terrible or that the entire history of catapult making is irrelevant as evidence towards the wastefulness of your artfully placed gemstones.
Until you can handle the issue of physical force without pretending people are going to be nice and not use it, your arguments always devolve and create a PDA as a sovereign force according to the classical Hobbesian definition of what a sovereign is. But then you're boned because your PDA's theoretical purpose is to maximize its own profit as per market forces, which then has it exploit its protectorate to a degree only found in fairly low-redistributive co-efficient kleptocracies.
You've been consistently avoiding this point because its a point you simply can't define away. Physical coercion exists and your fantasy can't wish it away.
|
On September 16 2010 12:56 Yurebis wrote:Show nested quote +On September 16 2010 12:39 ghrur wrote:On September 16 2010 10:55 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 10:34 ghrur wrote:On September 16 2010 10:32 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 10:18 ghrur wrote: You know, after I learned about economics a little more, I really appreciate the mathematics involved. So Yurebis, do this for us: Give a hypothesis about an-cap being better using mathematics Prove it.
See, the way most economists put it is like this: You can hide behind semantics, verbose arguments, confusing words, but you can't hide your arguments in mathematics. If you can't put it into math, it's a shitty argument. If it's a shitty argument, it's going to be obvious. So, prove it in math. *More word arguments instead of math* Protip: Start small. Ok. Crusoe economics. Man's wants are W. Man's means are M. Means have inputs and outputs. I and O. Man tries to satisfy W with the most cost-beneficial M. Ex-ante, the evaluation of M's (as maximizers of W's) is called expectation, E. Ex-post, the evaluation of M's is called experience, X. A malinvestment occurs ex-post, when X and E have a considerable mismatch, I'll call it Z. So.. what can be done with this is... W = M - Z W = M - (X-E) Hm I'm not good with math tbh but you can plug in what I said above better Catallactics. Trades only happen when expectations, E, are positive, or in other words, both parties have positive expectations to the satisfaction of their wants in that agreeable means of exchange. So trade only happens when E1*E2>0 Man will never trade when his expectations are negative, and when such an exchange happens, I call it coercion, C. C is E1*E2<=0 The <= is debatable but w/e I'll do more later maybe. Math disgusts me. edit: to add a little something, government intervention necessarily is coercion, because it doesn't let E2 (if the bureaucrat is E1) to express itself, so there's no real E2 to input. The E2 is actually another E1`, or a hunch to what the government thinks people expect. E1` can never be equal to E2, so whatever transaction it is, it is going to be calculated wrong - either too much is being done for an expectation that isn't so positive, or the transaction shouldn't have occured because it's negative. Also because it mixes the costs within those expectations; the state doesn't spend out of its own pocket, it steals from E2 too, lol so it's a huge mess, but to express it I'd have to expand the variables to do that and I just can't figure how atm. And that's just ex-ante Wait, W=M-X+E? So wants=means+expectations-experience? Why is this? Why is W=M-Z? If Z was 0, we would get all we want? Also, trade happens when E1*E2>0 Define E1 and E2 mathematically. How do you calculate E1 and/or E2? What're the use of I and O? Also, why all the words? Define your variables, and prove! The words aren't operations. I've never heard of a "man will trade" or "man will not trade" operation. Why is E1'=/=E2? Can you define E1' please? And then define E2? And then give a proof using variables to show they cannot possibly be equal? I mean, you're giving a LOT of assumptions here. Proofs usually start with like, 2 axioms or something, and continue on. I have no idea where you get all these things from. o.O Edit: You shouldn't hate math if your results are logically strong. I mean, math is simply using numbers instead of words to represent logic. It allows for a much more clear, pristine argument. If you wanted to convince us with undeniable logic, use math, because what you prove with mathematics is almost always solid. Well I told you that trying to do math with praxeology sounds nutty. W=M-Z means that 'wants are met through means minus error. Z is better called error Error is the difference between what is expected to happen and what happens., W=M-(X-E) W=M-X+E makes less sense... wants are met with means, minus the experience plus expectancy... hmm yeah something went wrong there. I will think some more on how to put this. E1 is the expectancy of person 1, E2 that of person 2. And it's not that they can't be equal but... the complexity of human psyche makes it so that it's almost impossible to be so. Not even exact twins who live together all their lives have the exact same expectations. But I think this is the wrong frame to put catallactics on... something is off again. Yeah well, I wish I could put into math, but it's not an easy thing to do and, to the economists that do, they overaggregate and equivocate a lot, especially when it comes to government spending.
But how do we calculate them mathematically? Specifically, E1 or E2? I guess you could say they're of different values, but then we can't really specify the values. It might be possible E1=E2, it might be possible E1=/=E2. I mean, y=x is true. y=x+1 means y=/=x, and that can be true too. So why is E1=/=E2 mathematically? How do you calculate them? Also, what do you mathematically mean by overaggregate? Do they add together too many numbers? Do they use too many numbers in their average? Do they use too many addition signs? Too many integrals? What? What is a mathematical example of overaggregation? Take this paper: http://www.minneapolisfed.org/research/sr/sr393.pdf and tell me what you would do with it mathematically so they get rid of this "overaggregation" problem. How do you stop it from happening in the equations?
|
On September 16 2010 13:05 L wrote:Show nested quote +Then even if they were, so what? Inventors and investors (oh wow it's almost the same word, never noticed that) throughout history have demonstrated that they can take their preferences, create and develop upon them, and then other people, who never acknowledge such, eventually adopted them too. This is more like trying to develop a feces launching catapult made out of gold, rubies and diamonds and telling me that a-priori my experiences with feces don't qualify me to tell you that your development is terrible or that the entire history of catapult making is irrelevant as evidence towards the wastefulness of your artfully placed gemstones. Until you can handle the issue of physical force without pretending people are going to be nice and not use it, your arguments always devolve and create a PDA as a sovereign force according to the classical Hobbesian definition of what a sovereign is. But then you're boned because your PDA's theoretical purpose is to maximize its own profit as per market forces, which then has it exploit its protectorate to a degree only found in fairly low-redistributive co-efficient kleptocracies. You've been consistently avoiding this point because its a point you simply can't define away. Physical coercion exists and your fantasy can't wish it away. I do agree that your experiences justify your thought that it's a waste of time making such a catapult. But your experiences alone tell nothing as to whether a future catapult may work or have a profitable use in different circumstances. Your experience draws theories of causation. It's those theories that have to be compared, not necessarily how they were drawn.
The state is only a deterrent for physical coercion insofar as it creates its own kind of coercion that has to be dealt with... it can't define it away either... it is just driven by political motive instead.
|
On September 16 2010 13:12 ghrur wrote:Show nested quote +On September 16 2010 12:56 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 12:39 ghrur wrote:On September 16 2010 10:55 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 10:34 ghrur wrote:On September 16 2010 10:32 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 10:18 ghrur wrote: You know, after I learned about economics a little more, I really appreciate the mathematics involved. So Yurebis, do this for us: Give a hypothesis about an-cap being better using mathematics Prove it.
See, the way most economists put it is like this: You can hide behind semantics, verbose arguments, confusing words, but you can't hide your arguments in mathematics. If you can't put it into math, it's a shitty argument. If it's a shitty argument, it's going to be obvious. So, prove it in math. *More word arguments instead of math* Protip: Start small. Ok. Crusoe economics. Man's wants are W. Man's means are M. Means have inputs and outputs. I and O. Man tries to satisfy W with the most cost-beneficial M. Ex-ante, the evaluation of M's (as maximizers of W's) is called expectation, E. Ex-post, the evaluation of M's is called experience, X. A malinvestment occurs ex-post, when X and E have a considerable mismatch, I'll call it Z. So.. what can be done with this is... W = M - Z W = M - (X-E) Hm I'm not good with math tbh but you can plug in what I said above better Catallactics. Trades only happen when expectations, E, are positive, or in other words, both parties have positive expectations to the satisfaction of their wants in that agreeable means of exchange. So trade only happens when E1*E2>0 Man will never trade when his expectations are negative, and when such an exchange happens, I call it coercion, C. C is E1*E2<=0 The <= is debatable but w/e I'll do more later maybe. Math disgusts me. edit: to add a little something, government intervention necessarily is coercion, because it doesn't let E2 (if the bureaucrat is E1) to express itself, so there's no real E2 to input. The E2 is actually another E1`, or a hunch to what the government thinks people expect. E1` can never be equal to E2, so whatever transaction it is, it is going to be calculated wrong - either too much is being done for an expectation that isn't so positive, or the transaction shouldn't have occured because it's negative. Also because it mixes the costs within those expectations; the state doesn't spend out of its own pocket, it steals from E2 too, lol so it's a huge mess, but to express it I'd have to expand the variables to do that and I just can't figure how atm. And that's just ex-ante Wait, W=M-X+E? So wants=means+expectations-experience? Why is this? Why is W=M-Z? If Z was 0, we would get all we want? Also, trade happens when E1*E2>0 Define E1 and E2 mathematically. How do you calculate E1 and/or E2? What're the use of I and O? Also, why all the words? Define your variables, and prove! The words aren't operations. I've never heard of a "man will trade" or "man will not trade" operation. Why is E1'=/=E2? Can you define E1' please? And then define E2? And then give a proof using variables to show they cannot possibly be equal? I mean, you're giving a LOT of assumptions here. Proofs usually start with like, 2 axioms or something, and continue on. I have no idea where you get all these things from. o.O Edit: You shouldn't hate math if your results are logically strong. I mean, math is simply using numbers instead of words to represent logic. It allows for a much more clear, pristine argument. If you wanted to convince us with undeniable logic, use math, because what you prove with mathematics is almost always solid. Well I told you that trying to do math with praxeology sounds nutty. W=M-Z means that 'wants are met through means minus error. Z is better called error Error is the difference between what is expected to happen and what happens., W=M-(X-E) W=M-X+E makes less sense... wants are met with means, minus the experience plus expectancy... hmm yeah something went wrong there. I will think some more on how to put this. E1 is the expectancy of person 1, E2 that of person 2. And it's not that they can't be equal but... the complexity of human psyche makes it so that it's almost impossible to be so. Not even exact twins who live together all their lives have the exact same expectations. But I think this is the wrong frame to put catallactics on... something is off again. Yeah well, I wish I could put into math, but it's not an easy thing to do and, to the economists that do, they overaggregate and equivocate a lot, especially when it comes to government spending. But how do we calculate them mathematically? Specifically, E1 or E2? I guess you could say they're of different values, but then we can't really specify the values. It might be possible E1=E2, it might be possible E1=/=E2. I mean, y=x is true. y=x+1 means y=/=x, and that can be true too. So why is E1=/=E2 mathematically? How do you calculate them? Also, what do you mathematically mean by overaggregate? Do they add together too many numbers? Do they use too many numbers in their average? Do they use too many addition signs? Too many integrals? What? What is a mathematical example of overaggregation? Take this paper: http://www.minneapolisfed.org/research/sr/sr393.pdfand tell me what you would do with it mathematically so they get rid of this "overaggregation" problem. How do you stop it from happening in the equations? You can't measure wants, obviously, so no further factorization is measurable either. Perhaps that is one of the key things that 'math economists' if i may call them that, fail to understand? You can measure activity, and established exchange values, but those are second-hand measurements to wants. Everything past that assumption is going to be distorted. That's one key difference between austrian economics and the rest - AE says the only way to maximize a person's wants, is to let him/her choose. The moment you try to estimate how much it wants something, it will be subpar already.
Edit: the only way I see it working is if brains were scannable. Constantly.
|
Sanya12364 Posts
What you need to do is model everyone as a stochastic processes. E's varies depend on exchange rates and the M Similarly M's varies as a stochastic over time You need to transform the M's into W, let's call this function T(M) which also behave slightly errratically and varies from person to person.
The aggregation of M is a histogram. Let's call this "supply". The aggregation of E is always negative. The size of the negative value depends on the transaction costs of the economy. This is the "expect trade" valuation and it is assuming certain exchange rates - a pricing schedule that each individual faces. Now individuals don't have to face the same pricing schedule. If you aggregate M1+E1 over all kinds of pricing schedules, you get something called a "demand" distribution.
As defined, T1(M1+E1) and T2(M2+E2) are maximals based on pricing schedules, so anything different is "inefficient." Aggregation of T(M+X) - T(M+E1) is just total "deadweight loss." You'll need a model for how price schedules of individuals behave and the transactions costs of the economy to be able to solve for E1, E2, E3, E4.
In the real world M is a lot more than two inputs; not just X's and O's. Aggregation of course is fraught with assumption about pricing schedules and transaction costs, etc. Macro has too much hand waving for my tastes.
|
But your experiences alone tell nothing as to whether a future catapult may work or have a profitable use in different circumstances. You have decided to debate that a gold and diamond shit flinger could in some magic circumstance be profitable or work.
Similarly, you could make any preposterous statement then qualify it by saying "there might be some condition X under which it would work" while admitting it has zero present value and zero foreseeable value.
Its valid because it might not be strictly wrong under conditions we can't ascertain? Sounds like a good theory.
The state is only a deterrent for physical coercion insofar as it creates its own kind of coercion that has to be dealt with... it can't define it away either... it is just driven by political motive instead. The state doesn't define it away either, nor does it attempt to. The state has a monopoly of power over an area and properly stated the person or institution who has a monopoly of power over an area is its sovereign.
But the state doesn't need to define it away because the state's claim to fame isn't that it has no coercion, but rather that unified coercion is peace, whereas struggling factions attempting to monopolize power is war. War sucks, ergo any state is awesome unless the net improvement of life by rebelling or revolting is superior to the cost of the instigation itself.
|
On September 16 2010 14:13 TanGeng wrote: What you need to do is model everyone as a stochastic processes. E's varies depend on exchange rates and the M Similarly M's varies as a stochastic over time You need to transform the M's into W, let's call this function T(M) which also behave slightly errratically and varies from person to person.
The aggregation of M is a histogram. Let's call this "supply". The aggregation of E is always negative. The size of the negative value depends on the transaction costs of the economy. This is the "expect trade" valuation and it is assuming certain exchange rates - a pricing schedule that each individual faces. Now individuals don't have to face the same pricing schedule. If you aggregate M1+E1 over all kinds of pricing schedules, you get something called a "demand" distribution.
As defined, T1(M1+E1) and T2(M2+E2) are maximals based on pricing schedules, so anything different is "inefficient." Aggregation of T(M+X) - T(M+E1) is just total "deadweight loss." You'll need a model for how price schedules of individuals behave and the transactions costs of the economy to be able to solve for E1, E2, E3, E4.
In the real world M is a lot more than two inputs; not just X's and O's. Aggregation of course is fraught with assumption about pricing schedules and transaction costs, etc. Macro has too much hand waving for my tastes. Oh wow I have no idea what you just said but looks awesome lols
On September 16 2010 14:17 L wrote:Show nested quote +But your experiences alone tell nothing as to whether a future catapult may work or have a profitable use in different circumstances. You have decided to debate that a gold and diamond shit flinger could in some magic circumstance be profitable or work. Similarly, you could make any preposterous statement then qualify it by saying "there might be some condition X under which it would work" while admitting it has zero present value and zero foreseeable value. Its valid because it might not be strictly wrong under conditions we can't ascertain? Sounds like a good theory. Yes.
|
Sanya12364 Posts
In your original function you should have written W = M + X <= this is actual Z = X - E
but since you defined M as resources and mean, you actual need to transform those means to meet your want so you need a function T. X is a delta (a change in how well your means go towards addressing your wants) from the unmodified (no trade scenario) and so is E. So perhaps W = T(M) + dT(x) Z = dT(x) - dT(e)
if we keep X as amount of trade to achieve what is actually experience and E the amount of trade that is optimal, you get dT(x) = T(M+X) - T(M) dT(e) = T(M+E) - T(M) Z = T(M+X) - T(M+E) since dT(e) is a maximal, we can see that it can never be less than 0 (no trading at all)
The possible trades that an individual can make depends on his personal and impersonal connections. A wholesaler might have exceptional ability to get better prices, a person with a drug dealer friend connection might get the friend discount, etc. Price discrimination is a part of society. The merchant is mere an arbitrager and consciously chooses to arbitrage based on his connections.
The other idea is transaction costs. Any trade transaction will be pairing one receiving one side of the exchange and one side receiving the other side. But there are transaction costs associated with trades between individuals. Food can perish, transportation costs fuel, etc. There is plenty of non-uniformity in transaction costs.
The problem with aggregation is abstracting away non-uniformity of price schedules through price discrimination and abstracting away non-uniformity of transaction costs. It only makes for cleaner mathematical functions and models.
As far as what stochastic means, it's used to describe observed random variation of a value over time inside a constrained system. It's not perfect description of drifting changes in human behavior and human preferences, but models will have to acknowledge the changes of human preference over time within the constraints of human society.
|
On September 16 2010 14:18 Yurebis wrote:Show nested quote +On September 16 2010 14:17 L wrote:But your experiences alone tell nothing as to whether a future catapult may work or have a profitable use in different circumstances. You have decided to debate that a gold and diamond shit flinger could in some magic circumstance be profitable or work. Similarly, you could make any preposterous statement then qualify it by saying "there might be some condition X under which it would work" while admitting it has zero present value and zero foreseeable value. Its valid because it might not be strictly wrong under conditions we can't ascertain? Sounds like a good theory. Yes.
GG. End of Thread.
|
On September 16 2010 15:10 TanGeng wrote: [good shit] Ty for your hard work. I would honestly consider what you have derived but I really suck at math sry. But as long as you don't assume uniform utility functions to everyone and stuff like that, your model is probably praxeologically valid and I'd love to understand it... though it would be so general as to not be able to calculate much, besides probably the known rules of time preference, marginal utility, and stuff that austrians already know w/o math.
On September 16 2010 15:19 Danze wrote:Show nested quote +On September 16 2010 14:18 Yurebis wrote:On September 16 2010 14:17 L wrote:But your experiences alone tell nothing as to whether a future catapult may work or have a profitable use in different circumstances. You have decided to debate that a gold and diamond shit flinger could in some magic circumstance be profitable or work. Similarly, you could make any preposterous statement then qualify it by saying "there might be some condition X under which it would work" while admitting it has zero present value and zero foreseeable value. Its valid because it might not be strictly wrong under conditions we can't ascertain? Sounds like a good theory. Yes. GG. End of Thread. Not rly, he just made a tautological assessment, he hasn't explained what are those conditions that prevent ancap. And he just appeals to ignorance when he says he can't either. Well if you can't, then don't, simple, lol, I'm not requiring him to come here and appeal to tradition...
|
Gotta disagree with the OP.
I can levy a number of criticisms about human nature that apply equally to Anarcho-Capitalism and "The State," and just because they do, doesn't mean Anarcho-Capitalism is a better answer. In fact, I think it's a far worse solution than most of what we've got, and most of the "institutions" we've got now, will arise in an Anarchist society (albeit in a different guise) just like they've appeared in the past.
I say this as someone who was an "Anarchist" for years. Lived in a commune for some time, and saw first hand how tragically flawed that sort of "system" is. I'm convinced that most proponents of (whatever form of) Anarchism spent more time reading about it in books and less time actually trying to live it. When you attempt the latter, it doesn't take long to see that it doesn't matter what "system" you're following - people are the reason most things in society suck, and people are (obviously) part of every system.
From my experience, Anarchism is a pipe-dream (with great intentions); but god forbid anyone say that, because you're instantly labelled as a rigid thinking, right-wing, capitalist, conservative.
|
On September 16 2010 16:54 Mjolnir wrote:
Gotta disagree with the OP.
I can levy a number of criticisms about human nature that apply equally to Anarcho-Capitalism and "The State," and just because they do, doesn't mean Anarcho-Capitalism is a better answer. In fact, I think it's a far worse solution than most of what we've got, and most of the "institutions" we've got now, will arise in an Anarchist society (albeit in a different guise) just like they've appeared in the past.
I say this as someone who was an "Anarchist" for years. Lived in a commune for some time, and saw first hand how tragically flawed that sort of "system" is. I'm convinced that most proponents of (whatever form of) Anarchism spent more time reading about it in books and less time actually trying to live it. When you attempt the latter, it doesn't take long to see that it doesn't matter what "system" you're following - people are the reason most things in society suck, and people are (obviously) part of every system.
From my experience, Anarchism is a pipe-dream (with great intentions); but god forbid anyone say that, because you're instantly labelled as a rigid thinking, right-wing, capitalist, conservative.
Why have these institutions always appeared in the past, and why will they always appear again? Rape has also always happened in the past. Will rape always happen in the future?
I agree on anarcho-communism being flawed.
|
The amount of background reading just to comprehend the equations thrown on here... Some entertaining discussion tho, beats cramming 4 my test
|
|
|
|
|