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AB Calc Help proof ( i think?) - Page 2

Blogs > Yogurt
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Turbovolver
Profile Blog Joined January 2009
Australia2394 Posts
March 13 2009 06:08 GMT
#21
LOL, the original problem was written so unclearly, because as far as I can tell the 3 and the -2 have already been pre-multiplied. You should just be adding the three things together, not subbing them in to y'' = 2y' - 3y.

But hell, that ODE is so piss easy to solve (I have no idea what exactly AB calc is though so you might not have covered this).

Nice trick malongo, I would've just brute-forced the thing and ended up with a page of mess =p
The original Bogus fan.
Malongo
Profile Blog Joined November 2005
Chile3472 Posts
March 13 2009 06:09 GMT
#22
use sin(A+B)= sinA*cosB+sinB*cosA
since sinPi/4=√2/2 just follow the lines 1 by 1
And the lines where almost all copy paste -_-'
Help me! im still improving my English. An eye for an eye makes the whole world blind. M. G.
Malongo
Profile Blog Joined November 2005
Chile3472 Posts
Last Edited: 2009-03-13 06:13:20
March 13 2009 06:12 GMT
#23
On March 13 2009 15:08 Turbovolver wrote:
LOL, the original problem was written so unclearly, because as far as I can tell the 3 and the -2 have already been pre-multiplied. You should just be adding the three things together, not subbing them in to y'' = 2y' - 3y.

But hell, that ODE is so piss easy to solve (I have no idea what exactly AB calc is though so you might not have covered this).

Nice trick malongo, I would've just brute-forced the thing and ended up with a page of mess =p

Actually he doesnt have to solve the ODE just prove that y satisfy the ODE. I love trigonometry
Help me! im still improving my English. An eye for an eye makes the whole world blind. M. G.
Hypnosis
Profile Blog Joined October 2007
United States2061 Posts
March 13 2009 07:24 GMT
#24
isnt y'' the second derivative of y? this is stupid problem that exists to look complicated when its really a stupid problem with no real solving reason... calc isnt hard it just looks hard lol.
Science without religion is lame, Religion without science is blind
Turbovolver
Profile Blog Joined January 2009
Australia2394 Posts
March 13 2009 07:50 GMT
#25
On March 13 2009 16:24 Hypnosis wrote:
isnt y'' the second derivative of y? this is stupid problem that exists to look complicated when its really a stupid problem with no real solving reason... calc isnt hard it just looks hard lol.


Yep, exactly.

Also Malongo, that trig isn't necessary for the solution, it just makes it a lot cleaner. You probably realise that but whatever.
The original Bogus fan.
Bitter
Profile Joined March 2009
United States2 Posts
Last Edited: 2009-03-13 10:18:50
March 13 2009 10:13 GMT
#26
well although it should be possible to just work find y' and y'' and then plug it in.... for some reason when i tried that it didn't seem to work... needless to say it is 5 in the morning.

luckily with a little diff e q ...

r^2-2r+3=0
r= 1 +/- √2i

gives the general formula:

y = c1 e^x cos√2x + c2 e^x sin√2x

so as long as the c1 and c2 are correct everything seems right so go ahead and assume for sure that it is in fact cos√2 * x and etc for whoever wants to type everything out. It is simply derivative of first multiplied by second + first times derivative of second over and over and over. now this is annoying to write out so i would make a variable v=sin√2x and w=sin√2x and you end up with

-2v-2w=v''+w''

which is true. lemme know where you are having problems (yay me for first post on teamliquid being a calc post ).
Reason obeys itself....and ignorance submits to whatever is dictated to it.
ninjafetus
Profile Joined December 2008
United States231 Posts
March 13 2009 19:53 GMT
#27
The ODE works if you just start with y and take the derivatives yourself. The y' and y'' in the OP are incorrect. Just use the product rule and chain rule.

http://www.webpages.ttu.edu/jmillhol/calcproblem.pdf (rotate clockwise to read :p)
Hypnosis
Profile Blog Joined October 2007
United States2061 Posts
March 13 2009 21:14 GMT
#28
So it's hardly a proof. Unless your trying to prove that something is true using the limit h goes to zero formula..
Science without religion is lame, Religion without science is blind
Cloud
Profile Blog Joined November 2004
Sexico5880 Posts
Last Edited: 2009-03-13 21:25:34
March 13 2009 21:24 GMT
#29
Oh well youre not derivating. :/
BlueLaguna on West, msg for game.
ninjafetus
Profile Joined December 2008
United States231 Posts
March 14 2009 07:44 GMT
#30
On March 14 2009 06:14 Hypnosis wrote:
So it's hardly a proof. Unless your trying to prove that something is true using the limit h goes to zero formula..


Well, it depends on what the question is. Since the question was "show that this y satisfied this ODE", you could call it a proof to take the derivatives and plug it in. It doesn't need deltas and epsilons or some fancy theoretical framework to be called a proof; it just needs to verify some statement. Besides, you could argue the "limit as h goes to zero formula" is not a rigorous proof either, since you haven't rigorously justified the limit. What it comes down to is the framework you're expected to solve the problem in.
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